Exam 23: Evolution of Genes and Genomes
Exam 1: Studying Life246 Questions
Exam 2: Small Molecules and the Chemistry of Life246 Questions
Exam 3: Proteins, Carbohydrates, and Lipids246 Questions
Exam 4: Nucleic Acids and the Origin of Life246 Questions
Exam 5: Cells: the Working Units of Life248 Questions
Exam 6: Cell Membranes246 Questions
Exam 7: Cell Communication and Multicellularity246 Questions
Exam 8: Energy, Enzymes, and Metabolism246 Questions
Exam 9: Pathways That Harvest Chemical Energy246 Questions
Exam 10: Photosynthesis: Energy From Sunlight242 Questions
Exam 11: The Cell Cycle and Cell Division260 Questions
Exam 12: Inheritance, Genes, and Chromosomes250 Questions
Exam 13: Dna and Its Role in Heredity257 Questions
Exam 14: From Dna to Protein: Gene Expression252 Questions
Exam 15: Gene Mutation and Molecular Medicine251 Questions
Exam 16: Regulation of Gene Expression245 Questions
Exam 17: Genomes249 Questions
Exam 18: Recombinant Dna and Biotechnology243 Questions
Exam 20: Mechanisms of Evolution243 Questions
Exam 21: Reconstructing and Using Phylogenies246 Questions
Exam 22: Speciation247 Questions
Exam 23: Evolution of Genes and Genomes252 Questions
Exam 24: The History of Life on Earth246 Questions
Exam 25: Bacteria, Archaea, and Viruses262 Questions
Exam 26: The Origin and Diversification of Eukaryotes252 Questions
Exam 27: Plants Without Seeds: From Water to Land251 Questions
Exam 28: The Evolution of Seed Plants259 Questions
Exam 29: The Evolution and Diversity of Fungi261 Questions
Exam 30: Animal Origins and the Evolution of Body Plans248 Questions
Exam 31: Protostome Animals244 Questions
Exam 32: Deuterostome Animals246 Questions
Exam 33: The Plant Body243 Questions
Exam 34: Transport in Plants248 Questions
Exam 35: Plant Nutrition247 Questions
Exam 36: Regulation of Plant Growth246 Questions
Exam 37: Reproduction in Flowering Plants247 Questions
Exam 38: Plant Responses to Environmental Challenges246 Questions
Exam 39: Physiology, Homeostasis, and Temperature Regulation258 Questions
Exam 40: Animal Hormones249 Questions
Exam 41: Immunology: Animal Defense Systems265 Questions
Exam 42: Animal Reproduction261 Questions
Exam 43: Animal Development261 Questions
Exam 44: Neurons, Glia, and Nervous Systems250 Questions
Exam 45: Sensory Systems249 Questions
Exam 46: The Mammalian Nervous System: Structure and Higher Functions254 Questions
Exam 47: Musculoskeletal Systems259 Questions
Exam 48: Gas Exchange247 Questions
Exam 49: Circulatory Systems252 Questions
Exam 50: Nutrition, Digestion, and Absorption259 Questions
Exam 51: Salt and Water Balance and Nitrogen Excretion251 Questions
Exam 52: Animal Behavior249 Questions
Exam 53: The Physical Environment and Biogeography of Life248 Questions
Exam 54: Populations259 Questions
Exam 55: Species Interactions254 Questions
Exam 56: Communities247 Questions
Exam 57: Ecosystems238 Questions
Exam 58: A Changing Biosphere222 Questions
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Flying squirrels and flying lemurs do not actually fly but glide.They are able to glide because of the development of a patagium, a membrane that stretches from the forelimb to hindlimb on each side of the body.The independent development of this trait in two species that do not share a recent common ancestor with this trait indicates _______ evolution has occurred.
(Multiple Choice)
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A gene found in E.coli is not found in closely related species of bacteria, but similar genes are found in distantly related bacteria.This is most likely due to _______.
(Short Answer)
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Which scenario would be the least likely result of gene duplication?
(Multiple Choice)
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A biologist is examining the gene tree of a gene family of hormone receptor proteins.Which gene forms should she compare when focusing on changes in function due to gene duplication?
(Multiple Choice)
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Two species of plants that diverged 20 million years ago have accumulated an estimated 10 nucleotide differences in gene X.Species A has had an average population size of 3 million, while species B has had an average population size of 0.5 million.Both of these plants are annuals, with one generation per year.Assuming that the substitutions are all neutral, what is the estimated neutral mutation rate of gene X per million generations?
(Multiple Choice)
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Suppose three sibling species of frogs have the following DNA sequences at a portion of a gene: Species 1: AGTCTAGATCGCGGTCG
Species 2: AGTCGATCGCGGACG
Species 3: TGTCTAGATCACGGTCG
Recall that the observed number of mutations can differ from the total number of actual substitutions that occurred in pairwise sequence comparisons.If we assume that a gap of any length is equivalent to three nucleotide substitutions, how many substitutions have occurred between species 1 and species 3?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which possible mechanism of concerted evolution would not change the number of copies of a repeated sequence on a chromosome?
(Multiple Choice)
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Refer to the figure.
In humans, STAT6, STAT5a, and STAT5b transcription factors are paralogs.According to the phylogenetic gene tree shown, since the gene duplication event that gave rise to the STAT6 and STAT5 lineages, how many gene duplication events have occurred to generate human STAT5a and human STAT5b?
(Multiple Choice)
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Detection of _______ substitutions requires knowing the sequence of intermediates between the common ancestor and the descendant colonies, in addition to that of the two colonies and the common ancestor.
(Multiple Choice)
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Below are the DNA sequences from four hypothetical species of bacteria.
Species 1: AGAGAATCTGCCATGAACTGA
Species 2: AGAGAGTCTGCGCATGCACTGA
Species 3: AGAAAGTGTCAGCGGATGCACTCA
Species 4: AGAAAGTGTCAGCGCATGCACTCA
Which two pairs of species are most likely to be most closely related?
(Short Answer)
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In a hypothetical experiment, researchers sequence a gene from a colony of bacteria at various times in the history of the colony.In the common ancestor, the nucleotide at site 998 is A.After 1,500 generations, it changes to G.After 5,000 generations, it changes back to A.This is an example of a(n)
(Multiple Choice)
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Refer to the figure showing the hypothetical observed sequences from two related species and their common ancestor.
How many substitutions have actually occurred between species 1 and species 2?
(Short Answer)
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Suppose that the size of a population of midges is 20 million and that the mutation rate of a neutral gene is 1.5 per million.How many new mutations of this gene should appear in the population per generation?
(Multiple Choice)
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Below are short fragments of DNA sequences from two yeast strains (A and B), which have been diverging from each other, as well as a short fragment from their common ancestor (C). Yeast A: TGACTGCAAACATCCTAG
Yeast B: TGCCTGGACACATCGAAG
Yeast C: TGCCTGGAAACCTCCTAG
Based on the information from all three sequences, there is evidence for _______ parallel substitution(s) and _______ coincident substitution(s).
(Multiple Choice)
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Suppose the size of a population of whales is 2,400 individuals.According to genetic drift theory, what is the probability that a newly arisen neutral mutation will become fixed in this population?
(Multiple Choice)
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