Exam 19: Dna Technology
Exam 1: Biology and Its Themes46 Questions
Exam 2: Atoms and Molecules61 Questions
Exam 3: The Chemistry of Water55 Questions
Exam 4: Carbon: the Basis of Molecular Diversity52 Questions
Exam 5: Biological Macromolecules and Lipids71 Questions
Exam 6: Energy and Life65 Questions
Exam 7: Cell Structure and Function66 Questions
Exam 8: Cell Membranes67 Questions
Exam 9: Cellular Signaling62 Questions
Exam 10: Cell Respiration68 Questions
Exam 11: Photosynthetic Processes64 Questions
Exam 12: Mitosis63 Questions
Exam 13: Sexual Life Cycles and Meiosis64 Questions
Exam 14: Mendelian Genetics65 Questions
Exam 15: Linkage and Chromosomes54 Questions
Exam 16: Nucleic Acids and Inheritance65 Questions
Exam 17: Expression of Genes70 Questions
Exam 18: Control of Gene Expression66 Questions
Exam 19: Dna Technology56 Questions
Exam 20: The Evolution of Genomes47 Questions
Exam 21: How Evolution Works60 Questions
Exam 22: Phylogenetic Reconstruction66 Questions
Exam 23: Microevolution65 Questions
Exam 24: Species and Speciation65 Questions
Exam 25: Macroevolution58 Questions
Exam 26: Introduction to Viruses54 Questions
Exam 27: Prokaryotes61 Questions
Exam 28: The Origin and Evolution of Eukaryotes66 Questions
Exam 29: Nonvascular and Seedless Vascular Plants72 Questions
Exam 30: Seed Plants64 Questions
Exam 31: Introduction to Fungi56 Questions
Exam 32: An Introduction to Animal Diversity58 Questions
Exam 33: Invertebrates58 Questions
Exam 34: Vertebrates66 Questions
Exam 35: Plant Structure and Growth68 Questions
Exam 36: Transport in Vascular Plants73 Questions
Exam 37: Plant Nutrition51 Questions
Exam 38: Reproduction of Flowering Plants59 Questions
Exam 39: Plant Signals and Behavior60 Questions
Exam 40: The Animal Body58 Questions
Exam 41: Chemical Signals in Animals62 Questions
Exam 42: Animal Digestive Systems58 Questions
Exam 43: Animal Transport Systems58 Questions
Exam 44: Animal Excretory Systems49 Questions
Exam 45: Animal Reproductive Systems64 Questions
Exam 46: Development in Animals68 Questions
Exam 47: Animal Defenses Against Infection65 Questions
Exam 48: Electrical Signals in Animals62 Questions
Exam 49: Neural Regulation in Animals69 Questions
Exam 50: Sensation and Movement in Animals68 Questions
Exam 51: An Overview of Ecology71 Questions
Exam 52: Behavioral Ecology64 Questions
Exam 53: Populations and Life History Traits73 Questions
Exam 54: Biodiversity and Communities71 Questions
Exam 55: Energy Flow and Chemical Cycling in Ecosystems80 Questions
Exam 56: Conservation and Global Ecology75 Questions
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Which of the following describes the best approach to making a gene that contains introns shorter, but remaining functional, for genetic engineering purposes?
(Multiple Choice)
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PCR and cellular DNA replication share which of the following characteristics?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following tools of DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following measures has been adopted by researchers to address concerns over the safety of using DNA technology?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following statements correctly describes how RNA interference (RNAi) reduces the expression of selected genes?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following characteristics of RNA-seq make it particularly suitable to use in genome-wide expression studies?
(Multiple Choice)
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In large-scale, genome-wide association studies in humans, which of the following types of genetic markers are typically sought by researchers?
(Multiple Choice)
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In the form of gene therapy used successfully for severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome, SCID-X1, how is the genetic engineering of human cells achieved?
(Multiple Choice)
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Many identical copies of genes cloned in bacteria are produced as a result of which of the following processes?
(Multiple Choice)
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What information is critical to the success of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
(Multiple Choice)
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Use the following information to answer the question.
A piece of DNA was incubated with a restriction enzyme called Hind III. The restriction enzyme digestion produced eight different size fragments that were separated by gel electrophoresis.
Which of the following observations correctly describes characteristics of the outcomes of this process?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following statements correctly describes a characteristic of genetically engineered plants?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following characteristics of retroviruses most directly contributes to their usefulness in gene therapy applications?
(Multiple Choice)
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Pax-6 is a gene involved in eye formation that has homologues in invertebrates and vertebrates. The fact that expressing the mouse form of Pax-6 in a fruit fly leads to a compound fly eye (not a single lens mouse eye) suggests which of the following characteristics of this gene?
(Multiple Choice)
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For which of the following processes can dideoxyribonucleotides be used?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following statements correctly describes one of the main differences between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which order of the following steps provides the most logical sequence to follow when splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?
I. Transform bacteria with a recombinant DNA molecule.
II. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes (endonucleases).
III. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.
IV. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA fragments.
V. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA.
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following characteristics of short tandem repeats (STRs) DNA makes it useful for DNA fingerprinting (genetic profiling)?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following processes is used to convert adult cells into pluripotent stem cells (iPS).
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following statements correctly describes characteristics of adult stem cells and other cells isolated from the same tissue at the same time?
(Multiple Choice)
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