Exam 22: Myelodysplastic Syndromes
Exam 1: Introduction34 Questions
Exam 2: Cellular Homeostasis40 Questions
Exam 3: Hematopoiesis35 Questions
Exam 4: Structure and Function of Hematopoietic Organs34 Questions
Exam 5: The Erythrocyte33 Questions
Exam 6: Hemoglobin35 Questions
Exam 7: The Leukocyte37 Questions
Exam 8: Introduction to Anemia35 Questions
Exam 9: Anemias of Disordered Iron Metabolism and Heme Synthesis36 Questions
Exam 10: Hemoglobinopaties: Qualitative Defects33 Questions
Exam 11: Thalassemia32 Questions
Exam 12: Megaloblastic and Nonmegaloblastic Macrocytic Anemias67 Questions
Exam 13: Introduction to Hemolytic Anemia32 Questions
Exam 14: Hemolytic Anemia: Membrane Defects36 Questions
Exam 15: Hemolytic Anemia: Enzyme Deficiencies35 Questions
Exam 16: Hemolytic Anemia: Immune Anemias30 Questions
Exam 17: Hemolytic Anemia: Nonimmune Defects32 Questions
Exam 18: Nonmalignant Granulocyte and Monocyte Disorders23 Questions
Exam 19: Nonmalignant Lymphocyte Disorders32 Questions
Exam 20: Introduction to Hematopoietic Neoplasms34 Questions
Exam 21: Myeloproliferative Disorders41 Questions
Exam 22: Myelodysplastic Syndromes33 Questions
Exam 23: Acute Myeloid Leukemias35 Questions
Exam 24: Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemias35 Questions
Exam 25: Lymphoid Malignancies: Chronic Lymphoid Leukemias, Lymphomas, and Plasma Cell Neoplasms34 Questions
Exam 26: Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation43 Questions
Exam 27: Morphologic Analysis of Body Fluids in the Hematology Laboratory39 Questions
Exam 28: Primary Hemostasis34 Questions
Exam 29: Secondary Hemostasis and Fibrinolysis33 Questions
Exam 30: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis33 Questions
Exam 31: Disorders of Secondary Hemostasis35 Questions
Exam 32: Thrombophilia35 Questions
Exam 33: Hematology Procedures and Hemostasis46 Questions
Exam 34: Bone Marrow Examination34 Questions
Exam 35: Automation in Hematology and Hemostasis39 Questions
Exam 36: Flow Cytometry35 Questions
Exam 37: Chromosome Analysis of Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Disorders35 Questions
Exam 38: Molecular Analysis of Hematologic Diseases15 Questions
Exam 39: Laboratory Testing in Coagulation39 Questions
Exam 40: Quality Assessment in the Hematology Laboratory41 Questions
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An unknown cell possesses the following characteristics: blast-like characteristics including open chromatin pattern, prominent nucleoli, absence of granules and a high N:C ratio.Based on this information, what is the most probable identity of the cell?
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
A
Which of the following MDS/MPDclassifications includes the immunophenotype CD33, CD13 + MPO +?
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
C
Which of the following represents the granularity pattern of an abnormal in MDS?
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
D
All of the following are included in the SHOMDS/MPD family except:
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is considered an MDS/MPD variant in the WHO classification?
(Multiple Choice)
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The WHO classification system for each subgroup of myelodysplastic syndrome is based on which characteristics?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient blood smear shows oval macrocytes, a dimorphic population, and basophilic stippling.There are also 6% blasts in the peripheral blood.What is the presumptive classification based on these findings?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which WHO classification for MDS is best supported when the peripheral blood shows a general cytopenia, 5-19% blasts with Auer rods, and less than 1 x109 /L monocytes?
(Multiple Choice)
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A 60-year-old patient visits his general practitioner because of fatigue and unexplained bruising.Physical examination revealed a frail, thin, pale man with widespread bruising.A CBC is ordered, and comes back abnormal.Peripheral blood smear examination revealed abnormal granularity of platelets and leukocytes.Red cells appear dimorphic.Bone marrow analysis is performed, and there were 20% ringed sideroblasts with dysplastic changes in RBC and WBC precursors.No cytogenetic abnormalities were detected.Based on this information, what is a probable diagnosis?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient presents with general anemia and rare or no blasts.The bone marrow smear reveals 3% blasts, no Auer rods and 12% ringed sideroblasts.Which MDS classification is the associated with these findings?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which type of blasts contains fewer than 20 primary granules in the cytoplasm, has a centralized nucleus, and can be found in both AML and MDS?
(Multiple Choice)
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The 5q-syndrome frequently shows dysplasia in which cell lineage?
(Multiple Choice)
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Many of the myelodysplastic syndromes share a common cytogenetic abnormality.What is it?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following IPSS scores has the highest survival rate in MDS?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which test or tests support the theory that the abnormal cells in MDS are clones derived from an abnormal pluripotent stem cell?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the six WHO MDS subgroups contains two or more cytopenias, rare or no blasts, less than 1 x 109 /L monocytes in the peripheral blood and less than 5% blasts and less than 15% ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow?
(Multiple Choice)
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The chromosomal abnormalities present in most cases of MDS are located on which of the following chromosomes?
(Multiple Choice)
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According to the WHO classification, how many blasts must be present in the bone marrow to classify a patient with acute leukemia?
(Multiple Choice)
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