Exam 40: Quality Assessment in the Hematology Laboratory
Exam 1: Introduction34 Questions
Exam 2: Cellular Homeostasis40 Questions
Exam 3: Hematopoiesis35 Questions
Exam 4: Structure and Function of Hematopoietic Organs34 Questions
Exam 5: The Erythrocyte33 Questions
Exam 6: Hemoglobin35 Questions
Exam 7: The Leukocyte37 Questions
Exam 8: Introduction to Anemia35 Questions
Exam 9: Anemias of Disordered Iron Metabolism and Heme Synthesis36 Questions
Exam 10: Hemoglobinopaties: Qualitative Defects33 Questions
Exam 11: Thalassemia32 Questions
Exam 12: Megaloblastic and Nonmegaloblastic Macrocytic Anemias67 Questions
Exam 13: Introduction to Hemolytic Anemia32 Questions
Exam 14: Hemolytic Anemia: Membrane Defects36 Questions
Exam 15: Hemolytic Anemia: Enzyme Deficiencies35 Questions
Exam 16: Hemolytic Anemia: Immune Anemias30 Questions
Exam 17: Hemolytic Anemia: Nonimmune Defects32 Questions
Exam 18: Nonmalignant Granulocyte and Monocyte Disorders23 Questions
Exam 19: Nonmalignant Lymphocyte Disorders32 Questions
Exam 20: Introduction to Hematopoietic Neoplasms34 Questions
Exam 21: Myeloproliferative Disorders41 Questions
Exam 22: Myelodysplastic Syndromes33 Questions
Exam 23: Acute Myeloid Leukemias35 Questions
Exam 24: Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemias35 Questions
Exam 25: Lymphoid Malignancies: Chronic Lymphoid Leukemias, Lymphomas, and Plasma Cell Neoplasms34 Questions
Exam 26: Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation43 Questions
Exam 27: Morphologic Analysis of Body Fluids in the Hematology Laboratory39 Questions
Exam 28: Primary Hemostasis34 Questions
Exam 29: Secondary Hemostasis and Fibrinolysis33 Questions
Exam 30: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis33 Questions
Exam 31: Disorders of Secondary Hemostasis35 Questions
Exam 32: Thrombophilia35 Questions
Exam 33: Hematology Procedures and Hemostasis46 Questions
Exam 34: Bone Marrow Examination34 Questions
Exam 35: Automation in Hematology and Hemostasis39 Questions
Exam 36: Flow Cytometry35 Questions
Exam 37: Chromosome Analysis of Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Disorders35 Questions
Exam 38: Molecular Analysis of Hematologic Diseases15 Questions
Exam 39: Laboratory Testing in Coagulation39 Questions
Exam 40: Quality Assessment in the Hematology Laboratory41 Questions
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Why is it recommended that only 5-10 subjects be tested per day during a reference interval study?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which hematologic parameters would be affected by excessive lipemia in the blood sample?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following would cause the technologist to question the specimen integrity of a coagulation blood sample?
(Multiple Choice)
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Quality control is run on the Sysmex XE-2100 for the morning shift.The low control is outside the 2SD limit for the WBC parameter.The technologist investigates the quality control material for low volume, checks reagents, and checks the previous QC charts.There are no discrepancies.What are the technologist's next steps in investigating this finding?
(Multiple Choice)
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An instrument printout reveals the following: PT = 9.0 sec and APTT = 20.0 sec.What should the technologist do next?
(Multiple Choice)
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In reviewing a patient's APTT result, the clinical laboratory professional notes the presence of a delta flag.The patient's current APTT is 54 seconds, while the previous APTT (24 hrs ago) was 31 seconds (Note: QC was acceptable for both runs).Which is the most appropriate action?
(Multiple Choice)
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The following CBC results were obtained on an adult female:
RBC 3.05\times1/ WBC 8.1\times1/ 6.4/ PLT 412\times1/ 23\% 75 21 28/
Which is the most appropriate action?
(Multiple Choice)
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Who is responsible for training clinical laboratory professionals regarding the use of hazardous chemicals?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following Westgard rule violations allows for patient samples to be run?
(Multiple Choice)
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Improper patient identification is considered a violation of which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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On average, how often should proficiency testing be performed in the laboratory?
(Multiple Choice)
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An instrument printout reveals a hemoglobin of 15.0 g/dL, an RBC count of 3.0 x 1012/L, and a hematocrit of 30%.The MCHC is 50g/dL.A manual hematocrit is performed, and the technologist observes gross hemolysis and lipemia in the manual hematocrit tube.What is the technologist's next step in correcting the problem?
(Multiple Choice)
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Name one way that the laboratory verifies/validates the following:
A)Accuracy
B)Precision
C)Analytical sensitivity
D)Analytical specificity
(Essay)
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The regulatory body responsible for establishing proper guidelines for biohazardous waste material removal is:
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following represents the BEST method to assess a clinical laboratory professional's competency in performing leukocyte differentials?
(Multiple Choice)
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The following numbers are on a data set for a new lot of QC material: 23, 25, 19, 27, 20, 22, 24, and 26.What are the mean and standard deviation?
(Multiple Choice)
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Given the following precision study results for an automated prothrombin time procedure: Precision Study Level 1 Level 2 Level 3 Mean 10.5 12.1 19.4 SD 0.06 0.18 0.17 CV 0.6\% 1.5\% 0.9\% Manufacturer's CV 0.8\% 1.1\% 1.1\%
Which is the appropriate interpretation?
(Multiple Choice)
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In interpreting a patient's CBC results, the clinical laboratory professional notes that the platelet count is 25 x 109/L.Which of the following could be associated with this finding?
(Multiple Choice)
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The following 20 hemoglobin results were collected for Level I control to determine its initial control limit (Results are in g/dL):
6.2 6.5 5.4 6.0 6.4 5.8 6.0 5.9 5.7 6.1 6.1 6.1 6.6 6.2 6.4 5.7 6.2 6.3 5.9 5.8
What are the 2s limits?
(Multiple Choice)
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