Exam 21: Myeloproliferative Disorders
Exam 1: Introduction34 Questions
Exam 2: Cellular Homeostasis40 Questions
Exam 3: Hematopoiesis35 Questions
Exam 4: Structure and Function of Hematopoietic Organs34 Questions
Exam 5: The Erythrocyte33 Questions
Exam 6: Hemoglobin35 Questions
Exam 7: The Leukocyte37 Questions
Exam 8: Introduction to Anemia35 Questions
Exam 9: Anemias of Disordered Iron Metabolism and Heme Synthesis36 Questions
Exam 10: Hemoglobinopaties: Qualitative Defects33 Questions
Exam 11: Thalassemia32 Questions
Exam 12: Megaloblastic and Nonmegaloblastic Macrocytic Anemias67 Questions
Exam 13: Introduction to Hemolytic Anemia32 Questions
Exam 14: Hemolytic Anemia: Membrane Defects36 Questions
Exam 15: Hemolytic Anemia: Enzyme Deficiencies35 Questions
Exam 16: Hemolytic Anemia: Immune Anemias30 Questions
Exam 17: Hemolytic Anemia: Nonimmune Defects32 Questions
Exam 18: Nonmalignant Granulocyte and Monocyte Disorders23 Questions
Exam 19: Nonmalignant Lymphocyte Disorders32 Questions
Exam 20: Introduction to Hematopoietic Neoplasms34 Questions
Exam 21: Myeloproliferative Disorders41 Questions
Exam 22: Myelodysplastic Syndromes33 Questions
Exam 23: Acute Myeloid Leukemias35 Questions
Exam 24: Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemias35 Questions
Exam 25: Lymphoid Malignancies: Chronic Lymphoid Leukemias, Lymphomas, and Plasma Cell Neoplasms34 Questions
Exam 26: Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation43 Questions
Exam 27: Morphologic Analysis of Body Fluids in the Hematology Laboratory39 Questions
Exam 28: Primary Hemostasis34 Questions
Exam 29: Secondary Hemostasis and Fibrinolysis33 Questions
Exam 30: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis33 Questions
Exam 31: Disorders of Secondary Hemostasis35 Questions
Exam 32: Thrombophilia35 Questions
Exam 33: Hematology Procedures and Hemostasis46 Questions
Exam 34: Bone Marrow Examination34 Questions
Exam 35: Automation in Hematology and Hemostasis39 Questions
Exam 36: Flow Cytometry35 Questions
Exam 37: Chromosome Analysis of Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Disorders35 Questions
Exam 38: Molecular Analysis of Hematologic Diseases15 Questions
Exam 39: Laboratory Testing in Coagulation39 Questions
Exam 40: Quality Assessment in the Hematology Laboratory41 Questions
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Contrast primary polycythemia and secondary polycythemia based on pathophysiology.
(Essay)
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The presence of which of the following in the bone marrow would lead the clinician to a diagnosis of a myeloproliferative disorder rather than of an acute leukemia?
(Multiple Choice)
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The Philadelphia chromosome results from a fusion of which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient presents with a moderate leukoerythroblastic anemia, striking anisocytosis and poikilocytosis.The anemia is normocytic, normochromic.Large platelets are noted.Dacryocytes, elliptocytes, and ovalocytes are present.Basophilic stippling is present.What disease is associated with these findings?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following tests would help differentiate primary polycythemia from secondary polycythemia?
(Multiple Choice)
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The most striking finding in the peripheral blood in this disease is extreme and consistent thrombocytosis.Giant, bizarre platelet forms are present in the peripheral blood.Megakaryocytes and megakaryocyte fragments can be present.Abnormalities in platelet aggregation and adhesion are common.What is this disease?
(Multiple Choice)
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A LAP score is ordered on a patient with a WBC count of 68 x 109/L.A fingerstick is performed, and the slides are sent to the lab for processing.The technologist performs the analysis and obtains the following results: Neg (0) = 35
1+ = 25
2+ = 15
3+ = 25
4+ = 0
What is the LAP score? What is the most probable diagnosis based on the LAP score?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient's laboratory results indicate a markedly increased hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell count.White blood cells and platelets are also slightly increased.The erythropoietin level is decreased.Which is most likely:
(Multiple Choice)
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The key factor to distinguish relative and absolute polycythemia is that a relative polycythemia is due to:
(Multiple Choice)
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Interpret the following results: -WBC count: 102 x 109/L
-Differential: 13% segmented neutrophils, 28% band neutrophils, 15% metamyelocytes, 8% myelocytes, 6% promyelocytes, 15% lymphocytes, 8% basophils, 7% monocytes
-LAP score: 100 band and segmented neutrophils:
-Cells with a negative (0) reaction = 92
-Cells with a positive 1+ reaction = 5
-Cells with a positive 2+ reaction = 3
What is the LAP score? What disease is associated with this LAP score?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following myeloproliferative disorders is characterized by an elevated white count and a markedly elevated platelet count?
(Multiple Choice)
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What laboratory finding distinguishes leukemoid reaction from CML?
(Multiple Choice)
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A physician strongly suspects CML in his patient.He has already ordered a bone marrow differential and cytogenetic analysis for the Philadelphia chromosome.What other test would help confirm the CML picture for this patient?
(Multiple Choice)
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What substance(s) is/are primarily responsible for stimulating the growth and proliferation of fibroblasts in CIMF?
(Multiple Choice)
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The major cell line involved in the pathogenesis of CIMF is which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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