Exam 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care30 Questions
Exam 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care22 Questions
Exam 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping49 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control34 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice41 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care88 Questions
Exam 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care21 Questions
Exam 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research10 Questions
Exam 9: The Respiratory System129 Questions
Exam 10: The Cardiovascular System68 Questions
Exam 11: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 12: Gas Exchange and Transport88 Questions
Exam 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes94 Questions
Exam 14: Acid-Base Balance100 Questions
Exam 15: Regulation of Breathing50 Questions
Exam 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient100 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data38 Questions
Exam 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram35 Questions
Exam 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange115 Questions
Exam 20: Pulmonary Function Testing70 Questions
Exam 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging47 Questions
Exam 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist25 Questions
Exam 23: Nutrition Assessment46 Questions
Exam 24: Pulmonary Infections56 Questions
Exam 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases59 Questions
Exam 26: Interstitial Lung Disease45 Questions
Exam 27: Pleural Diseases42 Questions
Exam 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease57 Questions
Exam 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome30 Questions
Exam 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning21 Questions
Exam 31: Lung Cancer28 Questions
Exam 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall29 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Sleep30 Questions
Exam 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders70 Questions
Exam 35: Airway Pharmacology67 Questions
Exam 36: Airway Management117 Questions
Exam 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support70 Questions
Exam 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy109 Questions
Exam 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy116 Questions
Exam 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases78 Questions
Exam 41: Medical Gas Therapy93 Questions
Exam 42: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act90 Questions
Exam 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support54 Questions
Exam 45: Mechanical Ventilators70 Questions
Exam 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support89 Questions
Exam 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction22 Questions
Exam 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support97 Questions
Exam 49: Noninvasive Ventilation51 Questions
Exam 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls25 Questions
Exam 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit60 Questions
Exam 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support62 Questions
Exam 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care34 Questions
Exam 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion20 Questions
Exam 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation64 Questions
Exam 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings130 Questions
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What is a potential limitation of flow-triggered metered dose inhaler devices?
(Multiple Choice)
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To provide an extra margin of safety during continuous bronchodilator therapy (CBT), which of the following would you recommend be monitored?
1) Eosinophil count
2) Serum potassium levels
3) Electrocardiogram
(Multiple Choice)
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Approximately what range of drug dosages can be provided with each firing of a metered dose inhaler?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is not considered a drug aerosol delivery system?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the preferred method for delivering bronchodilators to spontaneously breathing and intubated, ventilated patients?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following factors is most crucial in developing an effective program of aerosol drug self-administration in an adult patient requiring maintenance of bronchodilator therapy?
(Multiple Choice)
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Proper use of a soft mist inhaler requires that the patient be able to do which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following agents has been associated with increased intraocular pressure?
(Multiple Choice)
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Advantages of small-volume ultrasonic nebulizers for drug delivery include which of the following?
1) Greater respirable drug mass
2) Less dead space and waste
3) Increased mobility
4) Decreased cost
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following would be correct instructions for a patient being taught proper use of a dry powder inhaler?
1) Place mouthpiece 4 cm from mouth
2) Exhale slowly to FRC
3) Inhale slowly (<30 L/min)
4) Repeat until dose is used up
(Multiple Choice)
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Side effects of environmental exposure to ribavirin or pentamidine aerosols include which of the following?
1) Bronchospasm
2) Skin rashes
3) Conjunctivitis
4) Tachyphylaxis
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following source gas characteristics affect the performance of small-volume jet nebulizers?
1) Humidity
2) Flow
3) Pressure
4) Viscosity
(Multiple Choice)
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When fired inside the mouth, what percentage of the drug dose delivered by a simple metered dose inhaler (MDI) deposits in the oropharynx?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient with an acute exacerbation of asthma is not responding to the standard dose and frequency of an aerosolized bronchodilator and is now receiving small-volume jet nebulizer (SVN) therapy every 30 min. Which of the following would you recommend to the patient's physician at this time?
(Multiple Choice)
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To assess the effectiveness of a particular aerosol delivery device selection, what would you evaluate?
1) Patient's technique in using the device
2) Patient's response to and compliance with procedure
3) Objective measures of improvement (e.g., peak flow)
(Multiple Choice)
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