Exam 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care30 Questions
Exam 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care22 Questions
Exam 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping49 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control34 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice41 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care88 Questions
Exam 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care21 Questions
Exam 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research10 Questions
Exam 9: The Respiratory System129 Questions
Exam 10: The Cardiovascular System68 Questions
Exam 11: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 12: Gas Exchange and Transport88 Questions
Exam 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes94 Questions
Exam 14: Acid-Base Balance100 Questions
Exam 15: Regulation of Breathing50 Questions
Exam 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient100 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data38 Questions
Exam 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram35 Questions
Exam 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange115 Questions
Exam 20: Pulmonary Function Testing70 Questions
Exam 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging47 Questions
Exam 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist25 Questions
Exam 23: Nutrition Assessment46 Questions
Exam 24: Pulmonary Infections56 Questions
Exam 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases59 Questions
Exam 26: Interstitial Lung Disease45 Questions
Exam 27: Pleural Diseases42 Questions
Exam 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease57 Questions
Exam 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome30 Questions
Exam 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning21 Questions
Exam 31: Lung Cancer28 Questions
Exam 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall29 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Sleep30 Questions
Exam 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders70 Questions
Exam 35: Airway Pharmacology67 Questions
Exam 36: Airway Management117 Questions
Exam 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support70 Questions
Exam 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy109 Questions
Exam 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy116 Questions
Exam 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases78 Questions
Exam 41: Medical Gas Therapy93 Questions
Exam 42: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act90 Questions
Exam 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support54 Questions
Exam 45: Mechanical Ventilators70 Questions
Exam 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support89 Questions
Exam 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction22 Questions
Exam 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support97 Questions
Exam 49: Noninvasive Ventilation51 Questions
Exam 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls25 Questions
Exam 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit60 Questions
Exam 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support62 Questions
Exam 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care34 Questions
Exam 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion20 Questions
Exam 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation64 Questions
Exam 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings130 Questions
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Which of the following should be charted after completing a postural drainage treatment?
1) Amount and consistency of sputum produced
2) Patient tolerance of procedure
3) Position(s) used (including time)
4) Any untoward effects observed
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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(79)
Correct Answer:
C
Which of the following can provoke a cough?
1) Anesthesia
2) Foreign bodies
3) Infection
4) Irritating gases
Free
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(85)
Correct Answer:
D
Key considerations in initial and ongoing patient assessment for chest physical therapy include which of the following?
1) Posture and muscle tone
2) Breathing pattern and ability to cough
3) Sputum production
4) Cardiovascular stability
Free
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(83)
Correct Answer:
C
Why is strenuous patient coughing during postural drainage in a head-down position contraindicated?
(Multiple Choice)
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Properly performed chest vibration is applied at what point?
(Multiple Choice)
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In general, chest physical therapy can be expected to improve airway clearance when a patient's sputum production exceeds what volume?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following are mandatory components of the preassessment for postural drainage?
1) Vital signs
2) Bedside pulmonary function tests
3) Auscultation
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following measures would you use to ask patients for the presence of copious mucus production?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following airway clearance techniques would you recommend for a 15-month-old infant with cystic fibrosis?
(Multiple Choice)
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Proper instructions for positive expiratory pressure include which of the following?
1) Take in a breath that is larger than normal, but do not fill lungs completely.
2) Exhale forcefully and maintain an expiratory pressure of 10 to 20 cm H2O.
3) After 10 to 20 breaths, take two or three "huff"' coughs, and rest as needed.
4) Repeat the cycle 8 to 10 times, not to exceed 30 min.
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient recovering from abdominal surgery is having difficulty developing an effective cough. Which of the following actions would you recommend to aid this patient in generating a more effective cough?
1) Coordinating coughing with pain medication
2) Using the forced expiration technique (FET)
3) Supplying manual epigastric compression
4) "Splinting" the operative site
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the movement of small volumes of air back and forth in the respiratory tract at high frequencies (12 to 25 Hz) called?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following conditions are associated with chronic production of large volumes of sputum?
1) Bronchiectasis
2) Pulmonary fibrosis
3) Cystic fibrosis
4) Chronic bronchitis
(Multiple Choice)
5.0/5
(85)
Which of the following are potential indications for positive airway pressure therapies?
1) Reduce air trapping in asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
2) Help mobilize retained secretions.
3) Prevent or reverse atelectasis.
4) Optimize bronchodilator delivery.
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(80)
In setting up a postural drainage treatment schedule for a postoperative patient, which of the following information would you try to obtain from the patient's nurse?
1) Patient's medication schedule
2) Patient's meal schedule
3) Location of surgical incision
(Multiple Choice)
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Patients can control a flutter valve's pressure by changing what?
(Multiple Choice)
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A nurse explains to you that a certain neuromuscular patient cannot develop a good cough. Which of the following would you consider to manage this patient's clearance problem?
1) Combining manual chest compression with suctioning
2) Coordinating the coughing regimen with pain medication
3) Using the autogenic drainage method
4) Using mechanical insufflation-exsufflation
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following can impair mucociliary clearance in intubated patients?
1) Use of respiratory stimulants
2) Tracheobronchial suctioning
3) Inadequate humidification
4) High inspired oxygen concentrations
(Multiple Choice)
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Indications for directed coughing include which of the following?
1) Enhance other airway clearance therapies.
2) Help patients with tuberculosis clear secretions.
3) Help prevent postoperative pulmonary complications.
4) Obtain sputum specimens for diagnostic analysis.
(Multiple Choice)
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The airway clearance technique that uses a pneumatic device to deliver compressed gas minibursts to the airway at rates above 100/min best describes which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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