Exam 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care30 Questions
Exam 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care22 Questions
Exam 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping49 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control34 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice41 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care88 Questions
Exam 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care21 Questions
Exam 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research10 Questions
Exam 9: The Respiratory System129 Questions
Exam 10: The Cardiovascular System68 Questions
Exam 11: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 12: Gas Exchange and Transport88 Questions
Exam 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes94 Questions
Exam 14: Acid-Base Balance100 Questions
Exam 15: Regulation of Breathing50 Questions
Exam 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient100 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data38 Questions
Exam 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram35 Questions
Exam 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange115 Questions
Exam 20: Pulmonary Function Testing70 Questions
Exam 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging47 Questions
Exam 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist25 Questions
Exam 23: Nutrition Assessment46 Questions
Exam 24: Pulmonary Infections56 Questions
Exam 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases59 Questions
Exam 26: Interstitial Lung Disease45 Questions
Exam 27: Pleural Diseases42 Questions
Exam 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease57 Questions
Exam 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome30 Questions
Exam 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning21 Questions
Exam 31: Lung Cancer28 Questions
Exam 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall29 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Sleep30 Questions
Exam 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders70 Questions
Exam 35: Airway Pharmacology67 Questions
Exam 36: Airway Management117 Questions
Exam 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support70 Questions
Exam 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy109 Questions
Exam 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy116 Questions
Exam 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases78 Questions
Exam 41: Medical Gas Therapy93 Questions
Exam 42: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act90 Questions
Exam 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support54 Questions
Exam 45: Mechanical Ventilators70 Questions
Exam 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support89 Questions
Exam 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction22 Questions
Exam 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support97 Questions
Exam 49: Noninvasive Ventilation51 Questions
Exam 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls25 Questions
Exam 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit60 Questions
Exam 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support62 Questions
Exam 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care34 Questions
Exam 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion20 Questions
Exam 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation64 Questions
Exam 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings130 Questions
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Which of the following factors is associated with an increase in the incidence of RDS?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
B
Which of the following clinical findings suggest the child with croup should be hospitalized?
1) Stridor at rest
2) Suprasternal retractions
3) Cyanosis on room air
4) Harsh breath sounds
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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(68)
Correct Answer:
D
What treatment may improve lung fluid clearance in the infant with transient tachypnea?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
D
What is the maximum PIP that should be used with mechanical ventilation of larger premature infants to prevent volutrauma?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in the newborn with severe cyanosis at birth?
(Multiple Choice)
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What modality is believed to be the cause of a decrease in the reported incidence of epiglottitis over the past decade?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following findings on the chest radiograph are typical for RDS?
1) Hyperinflation
2) Air bronchograms
3) Diffuse hazy infiltrates
4) Bilateral reticulogranular densities
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following groups of infants should receive passive immunization for RSV?
1) Chronic lung disease
2) Infants born less than 32 weeks' gestational age
3) Infants with congenital heart disease
4) Infants with retinopathy of prematurity
(Multiple Choice)
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(73)
A 2-year-old boy is in severe respiratory distress. The child is drooling and has labored breathing. Stridor is heard. RR is 42 breaths/min and HR is 148 beats/min. What should be done next?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following ventilatory modalities have been associated with a lesser rate of air leak in meconium aspiration syndrome?
1) IMV
2) HFV
3) CPAP
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following statements are true about croup?
1) Caused by viral organism
2) Most common form of airway obstruction in children aged 6 months to 6 years
3) Causes subglottic swelling and obstruction
4) Most often caused by parainfluenza virus
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following are indications for RSV prophylactic therapy?
1) Infants less than 32 weeks and requiring FiO2 greater than 0.21 for at least the first 28 days of life
2) Cyanotic heart defects in the first year of life
3) Severely immunocompromised children less than 24 months of age
4) Children with cystic fibrosis
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following clinical signs are common with croup?
1) Stridor
2) Murmur
3) Coughing
4) Cyanosis
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following blood gas alteration is usually seen in meconium aspiration syndrome?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is not associated with apnea episodes in premature infants?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following should be done early in the treatment of the nonvigorous infant with meconium aspiration syndrome?
(Multiple Choice)
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What physiologic abnormality is believed to be the cause of persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following defects is not associated with tetralogy of Fallot?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is the most common type of esophageal atresia?
(Multiple Choice)
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