Exam 36: Airway Management
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care30 Questions
Exam 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care22 Questions
Exam 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping49 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control34 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice41 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care88 Questions
Exam 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care21 Questions
Exam 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research10 Questions
Exam 9: The Respiratory System129 Questions
Exam 10: The Cardiovascular System68 Questions
Exam 11: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 12: Gas Exchange and Transport88 Questions
Exam 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes94 Questions
Exam 14: Acid-Base Balance100 Questions
Exam 15: Regulation of Breathing50 Questions
Exam 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient100 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data38 Questions
Exam 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram35 Questions
Exam 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange115 Questions
Exam 20: Pulmonary Function Testing70 Questions
Exam 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging47 Questions
Exam 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist25 Questions
Exam 23: Nutrition Assessment46 Questions
Exam 24: Pulmonary Infections56 Questions
Exam 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases59 Questions
Exam 26: Interstitial Lung Disease45 Questions
Exam 27: Pleural Diseases42 Questions
Exam 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease57 Questions
Exam 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome30 Questions
Exam 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning21 Questions
Exam 31: Lung Cancer28 Questions
Exam 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall29 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Sleep30 Questions
Exam 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders70 Questions
Exam 35: Airway Pharmacology67 Questions
Exam 36: Airway Management117 Questions
Exam 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support70 Questions
Exam 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy109 Questions
Exam 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy116 Questions
Exam 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases78 Questions
Exam 41: Medical Gas Therapy93 Questions
Exam 42: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act90 Questions
Exam 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support54 Questions
Exam 45: Mechanical Ventilators70 Questions
Exam 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support89 Questions
Exam 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction22 Questions
Exam 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support97 Questions
Exam 49: Noninvasive Ventilation51 Questions
Exam 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls25 Questions
Exam 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit60 Questions
Exam 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support62 Questions
Exam 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care34 Questions
Exam 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion20 Questions
Exam 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation64 Questions
Exam 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings130 Questions
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The major limitations of using a laryngeal mask airway are:
1) It should not be used in conscious or semicomatose patients.
2) Gastric distention may occur if ventilating pressures greater than 20 cm H2O are needed.
3) It does not provide absolute protection against aspiration of gastric contents.
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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(90)
Correct Answer:
D
In a properly performed traditional surgical tracheotomy, entrance to the trachea is made through an incision in what area?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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(73)
Correct Answer:
C
What is the normal range of negative pressure to use when suctioning children?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(82)
Correct Answer:
C
Which of the following approaches may be used in "weaning" a patient from a tracheostomy tube?
1) Using progressively smaller tubes
2) Using a fenestrated tube
3) Using a tracheostomy button
(Multiple Choice)
5.0/5
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Absolute contraindication for nasotracheal suctioning includes which of the following?
1) Epiglottitis
2) Croup
3) Irritable airway
(Multiple Choice)
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Soon after endotracheal tube extubation, an adult patient exhibits a high-pitched inspiratory noise, heard without a stethoscope. Which of the following actions would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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The removable inner cannula commonly incorporated into modern tracheostomy tubes serves which of the following purposes?
1) Aid in routine tube cleaning and tracheostomy care
2) Prevent the tube from slipping into the trachea
3) Provide a patent airway should it become obstructed
(Multiple Choice)
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To provide local anesthesia and vasoconstriction during nasal intubation, what would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient receiving mechanical ventilatory support accidentally displaces the endotracheal tube out of the trachea. What would be the most appropriate action at this time?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is likely to increase the likelihood of damage to the tracheal mucosa?
(Multiple Choice)
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Compared with traditional surgical tracheostomy, which of the following are true about percutaneous dilatational tracheostomy?
1) Percutaneous dilatational tracheostomy has a lower incidence of complications.
2) Percutaneous dilatational tracheostomy is faster than traditional tracheostomy.
3) Percutaneous dilatational tracheostomy can be performed at the bedside.
4) Percutaneous dilatational tracheostomy does not require anterior neck dissection.
(Multiple Choice)
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After removal of an oral endotracheal tube, a patient exhibits hoarseness and stridor that do not resolve with racemic epinephrine treatments. What is most likely the problem?
(Multiple Choice)
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Equipment required for patient support and monitoring during a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure includes which of the following?
1) Pulse oximeter
2) Oxygen cannula
3) Electrocardiographic monitor
4) Capnometer
(Multiple Choice)
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(75)
A patient has been receiving positive-pressure ventilation through a tracheostomy tube for 4 days. In the past 2 days, there is evidence of both recurrent aspiration and abdominal distention but minimal air leakage around the tube cuff. What is most likely cause of the problem?
(Multiple Choice)
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During oral intubation of an adult, the endotracheal tube should be advanced into the trachea about how far?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following features incorporated into most modern endotracheal tubes assist in verifying proper tube placement?
1) Length markings on the curved body of the tube
2) Imbedded radiopaque indicator near the tube tip
3) Additional side port (Murphy eye) near the tube tip
(Multiple Choice)
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(74)
To make oral intubation easier, how should the patient's head and neck be positioned?
(Multiple Choice)
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Successful tube passage through the larynx during blind nasotracheal intubation is indicated by which of the following?
1) Louder breath sounds
2) Harsh cough
3) Vocal silence
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following can help to minimize the likelihood of mucosal trauma during suctioning?
1) Use as large a catheter as possible.
2) Rotate the catheter while withdrawing.
3) Use as rigid a catheter as possible.
4) Limit the amount of negative pressure.
(Multiple Choice)
5.0/5
(76)
You are about to suction a 10-year-old patient who has a 6-mm (internal diameter) endotracheal tube in place. What is the maximum size of catheter that you would use in this case?
(Multiple Choice)
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