Exam 36: Airway Management
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care30 Questions
Exam 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care22 Questions
Exam 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping49 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control34 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice41 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care88 Questions
Exam 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care21 Questions
Exam 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research10 Questions
Exam 9: The Respiratory System129 Questions
Exam 10: The Cardiovascular System68 Questions
Exam 11: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 12: Gas Exchange and Transport88 Questions
Exam 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes94 Questions
Exam 14: Acid-Base Balance100 Questions
Exam 15: Regulation of Breathing50 Questions
Exam 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient100 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data38 Questions
Exam 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram35 Questions
Exam 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange115 Questions
Exam 20: Pulmonary Function Testing70 Questions
Exam 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging47 Questions
Exam 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist25 Questions
Exam 23: Nutrition Assessment46 Questions
Exam 24: Pulmonary Infections56 Questions
Exam 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases59 Questions
Exam 26: Interstitial Lung Disease45 Questions
Exam 27: Pleural Diseases42 Questions
Exam 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease57 Questions
Exam 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome30 Questions
Exam 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning21 Questions
Exam 31: Lung Cancer28 Questions
Exam 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall29 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Sleep30 Questions
Exam 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders70 Questions
Exam 35: Airway Pharmacology67 Questions
Exam 36: Airway Management117 Questions
Exam 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support70 Questions
Exam 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy109 Questions
Exam 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy116 Questions
Exam 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases78 Questions
Exam 41: Medical Gas Therapy93 Questions
Exam 42: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act90 Questions
Exam 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support54 Questions
Exam 45: Mechanical Ventilators70 Questions
Exam 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support89 Questions
Exam 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction22 Questions
Exam 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support97 Questions
Exam 49: Noninvasive Ventilation51 Questions
Exam 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls25 Questions
Exam 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit60 Questions
Exam 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support62 Questions
Exam 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care34 Questions
Exam 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion20 Questions
Exam 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation64 Questions
Exam 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings130 Questions
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Which of the following conditions require emergency tracheal intubation?
1) Upper airway or laryngeal edema
2) Loss of protective reflexes
3) Cardiopulmonary arrest
4) Traumatic upper airway obstruction
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(82)
For which of the following reasons is atropine often used during fiberoptic bronchoscopy?
1) To dry the patient's airway
2) To decrease vagal responses
3) To provide topical anesthesia
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(95)
Before beginning an intubation procedure, the practitioner should check and confirm the operation of which of the following?
1) Laryngoscope light source
2) Endotracheal tube cuff
3) Suction equipment
4) Cardiac defibrillator
(Multiple Choice)
4.7/5
(75)
A patient with a tracheal airway exhibits severe respiratory distress. On quick examination, you notice the complete absence of breath sounds and no gas flowing through the airway. What is most likely the problem?
(Multiple Choice)
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(80)
During fiberoptic bronchoscopy, a patient's SpO2 drops from 91% to 87%. Which of the following actions would be appropriate?
1) Apply suction through the scope's open channel.
2) Give oxygen through the scope's open channel.
3) Increase the cannula or mask oxygen flow.
(Multiple Choice)
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(81)
A patient is being evaluated for tracheal damage sustained while having undergone prolonged tracheostomy intubation approximately 3 months earlier. The flow-volume loop demonstrates a fixed obstructive pattern. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
(Multiple Choice)
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(88)
A patient exhibits persistent mild hypoxemia after a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure. Which of the following would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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(83)
When using capnometry or colorimetry to differentiate esophageal from tracheal placement of an endotracheal tube, which of the following conditions can result in a false-negative finding (i.e., no CO2 present even when the tube is in the trachea)?
(Multiple Choice)
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To avoid the risk of aspiration after a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure, what would you recommend that the patient do?
(Multiple Choice)
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Compared with the oral route, the advantages of nasal intubation include which of the following?
1) Reduced risk of kinking
2) Less retching and gagging
3) Less accidental extubation
4) Greater long-term comfort
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(79)
Lower airway anesthesia for fiberoptic bronchoscopy can be achieved via which of the following routes of administration?
1) Bronchoscopic instillation
2) Intravenous administration
3) Nebulization (aerosol delivery)
(Multiple Choice)
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(69)
To maintain positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP) and high FiO2 when suctioning a mechanically ventilated patient, what would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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(76)
Which of the following equipment is needed to perform nasotracheal suctioning?
1) Suction kit (catheter, gloves, basin, etc.)
2) Laryngoscope with MacIntosh and Miller blades
3) Oxygen delivery system (mask and manual resuscitator)
4) Bottle of sterile water or saline solution
(Multiple Choice)
5.0/5
(70)
You are assisting a physician in the emergency care of a patient with a maxillofacial injury who will require short-term ventilatory support. Which of the following airway approaches would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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An adult man on ventilatory support has just been intubated with a 7-mm oral endotracheal tube equipped with a high-residual-volume, low-pressure cuff. When sealing the cuff to achieve a minimal occluding volume, you note a cuff pressure of 45 cm H2O. What is most likely the problem?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the normal range of negative pressure to use when suctioning an adult patient?
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(68)
When using a bulb-type esophageal detection device (EDD) during an intubation attempt, how do you know that the endotracheal tube is in the esophagus?
(Multiple Choice)
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(79)
What size endotracheal tube would you select to intubate a 1500-g newborn infant?
(Multiple Choice)
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(83)
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