Exam 36: Airway Management
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care30 Questions
Exam 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care22 Questions
Exam 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping49 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control34 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice41 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care88 Questions
Exam 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care21 Questions
Exam 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research10 Questions
Exam 9: The Respiratory System129 Questions
Exam 10: The Cardiovascular System68 Questions
Exam 11: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 12: Gas Exchange and Transport88 Questions
Exam 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes94 Questions
Exam 14: Acid-Base Balance100 Questions
Exam 15: Regulation of Breathing50 Questions
Exam 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient100 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data38 Questions
Exam 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram35 Questions
Exam 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange115 Questions
Exam 20: Pulmonary Function Testing70 Questions
Exam 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging47 Questions
Exam 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist25 Questions
Exam 23: Nutrition Assessment46 Questions
Exam 24: Pulmonary Infections56 Questions
Exam 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases59 Questions
Exam 26: Interstitial Lung Disease45 Questions
Exam 27: Pleural Diseases42 Questions
Exam 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease57 Questions
Exam 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome30 Questions
Exam 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning21 Questions
Exam 31: Lung Cancer28 Questions
Exam 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall29 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Sleep30 Questions
Exam 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders70 Questions
Exam 35: Airway Pharmacology67 Questions
Exam 36: Airway Management117 Questions
Exam 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support70 Questions
Exam 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy109 Questions
Exam 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy116 Questions
Exam 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases78 Questions
Exam 41: Medical Gas Therapy93 Questions
Exam 42: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act90 Questions
Exam 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support54 Questions
Exam 45: Mechanical Ventilators70 Questions
Exam 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support89 Questions
Exam 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction22 Questions
Exam 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support97 Questions
Exam 49: Noninvasive Ventilation51 Questions
Exam 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls25 Questions
Exam 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit60 Questions
Exam 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support62 Questions
Exam 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care34 Questions
Exam 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion20 Questions
Exam 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation64 Questions
Exam 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings130 Questions
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While checking a crash cart for intubation equipment, you find the following: suction equipment, oxygen apparatus, two laryngoscopes and assorted blades, five tubes, Magill forceps, tape, lubricating gel, and local anesthetic. What is missing?
1) Obturator
2) Syringe(s)
3) Resuscitator bag and mask
4) Tube stylet
(Multiple Choice)
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(75)
While suctioning a patient, you observe an abrupt change in the electrocardiogram waveform being displayed on the cardiac monitor. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?
(Multiple Choice)
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Complications of tracheal suctioning include which of the following?
1) Bronchospasm
2) Hyperinflation
3) Mucosal trauma
4) Elevated intracranial pressure
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient exhibits persistent stridor after a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure. Which of the following would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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To minimize the problems associated with pharyngeal aspiration in intubated patients, which of the following could you recommend?
1) Position patients in semi-recumbent position.
2) Insert the feeding tube into the duodenum.
3) Suction above the tracheal tube cuff.
4) Provide continuous aspiration of subglottic secretions.
(Multiple Choice)
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(75)
When checking for proper placement of an endotracheal tube in an adult patient on chest radiograph, it is noted that the distal tip of the tube is 2 cm above the carina. Which of the following actions would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following equipment would you gather before assisting in extubation of a patient?
1) Suctioning apparatus
2) Oxygen or aerosol therapy equipment
3) Manual resuscitator and mask
4) Nebulizer with racemic epinephrine
5) Intubation tray
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following drugs can be used to prevent bleeding during fiberoptic bronchoscopy?
1) Phenylephrine
2) Dopamine HCl
3) Epinephrine
(Multiple Choice)
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Tracheal airways increase the incidence of pulmonary infections for which of the following reasons?
1) Lower levels of humidification
2) Increased aspiration of pharyngeal material
3) Contaminated equipment or solutions
4) Ineffective clearance through cough
(Multiple Choice)
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What is a rare but serious complication associated with endotracheal tube extubation?
(Multiple Choice)
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Compared with translaryngeal intubation, the advantages of tracheostomy include which of the following?
1) Greater patient comfort
2) Reduced risk of bronchial intubation
3) No upper airway complications
4) Decreased frequency of aspiration
(Multiple Choice)
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To ensure adequate humidification for a patient with an artificial airway, inspired gas at the proximal airway should be 100% saturated with water vapor and at which of the following temperatures?
(Multiple Choice)
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Tracheal stenosis occurs in as many as 1 in 10 patients after prolonged tracheostomy. At what sites does this stenosis usually occur?
1) Cuff site
2) Tip of the tube
3) Stoma site
(Multiple Choice)
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A physician asks you to assess the upper airway function of a patient with a fenestrated tracheostomy tube. How should this be accomplished?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the most common sign associated with the transient glottic edema or vocal cord inflammation that follows extubation?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following techniques may be used to diagnose injury associated with artificial airways?
1) Laryngoscopy or bronchoscopy
2) Physical examination
3) Air tomography
4) Pulmonary function studies
(Multiple Choice)
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(85)
What is the standard size for endotracheal or tracheostomy tube adapters?
(Multiple Choice)
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In which of the following conditions should fiberoptic bronchoscopy not be performed if the risks outweigh the potential benefits?
1) Uncorrected bleeding disorders
2) Presence of lung abscess
3) Refractory hypoxemia
4) Unstable hemodynamic status
(Multiple Choice)
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You have been asked to monitor a patient who has just been extubated. Which of the following parameters would you monitor?
1) Color
2) Breath sounds
3) Vital signs
4) Inspiratory force
(Multiple Choice)
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(78)
Compared with the nasal route, the advantages of oral intubation include which of the following?
1) Reduced risk of kinking
2) Less retching and gagging
3) Easier suctioning
4) Less traumatic insertion
(Multiple Choice)
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