Exam 36: Airway Management
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care30 Questions
Exam 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care22 Questions
Exam 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping49 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control34 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice41 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care88 Questions
Exam 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care21 Questions
Exam 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research10 Questions
Exam 9: The Respiratory System129 Questions
Exam 10: The Cardiovascular System68 Questions
Exam 11: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 12: Gas Exchange and Transport88 Questions
Exam 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes94 Questions
Exam 14: Acid-Base Balance100 Questions
Exam 15: Regulation of Breathing50 Questions
Exam 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient100 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data38 Questions
Exam 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram35 Questions
Exam 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange115 Questions
Exam 20: Pulmonary Function Testing70 Questions
Exam 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging47 Questions
Exam 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist25 Questions
Exam 23: Nutrition Assessment46 Questions
Exam 24: Pulmonary Infections56 Questions
Exam 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases59 Questions
Exam 26: Interstitial Lung Disease45 Questions
Exam 27: Pleural Diseases42 Questions
Exam 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease57 Questions
Exam 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome30 Questions
Exam 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning21 Questions
Exam 31: Lung Cancer28 Questions
Exam 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall29 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Sleep30 Questions
Exam 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders70 Questions
Exam 35: Airway Pharmacology67 Questions
Exam 36: Airway Management117 Questions
Exam 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support70 Questions
Exam 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy109 Questions
Exam 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy116 Questions
Exam 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases78 Questions
Exam 41: Medical Gas Therapy93 Questions
Exam 42: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act90 Questions
Exam 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support54 Questions
Exam 45: Mechanical Ventilators70 Questions
Exam 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support89 Questions
Exam 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction22 Questions
Exam 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support97 Questions
Exam 49: Noninvasive Ventilation51 Questions
Exam 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls25 Questions
Exam 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit60 Questions
Exam 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support62 Questions
Exam 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care34 Questions
Exam 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion20 Questions
Exam 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation64 Questions
Exam 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings130 Questions
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A surgical resident has asked that you assist in an elective tracheotomy procedure on an orally intubated patient. Which of the following would be an appropriate action?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the purpose of the additional side port (Murphy eye) on most modern endotracheal tubes?
(Multiple Choice)
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After repeated nasotracheal suctioning over 2 days, a patient with retained secretions develops minor bleeding through the nose. Which of the following actions would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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After intubation of a cardiac arrest victim, you observe a slow but steady rise in the expired CO2 levels as measured by a bedside capnometer. Which of the following best explains this observation?
(Multiple Choice)
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While checking a Miller and a MacIntosh blade on an intubation tray during an emergency intubation, you find that the Miller blade "lights" but the MacIntosh blade does not. What should you do now?
(Multiple Choice)
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To minimize laryngeal swelling, a physician orders "continuous aerosol therapy" after the extubation of a patient. Which of the following specific approaches would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following statements are true about the potential for aspiration in patients with cuffed tracheal tubes?
1) Periodic oropharyngeal suctioning can help to minimize aspiration.
2) Aspiration is least likely in spontaneously breathing patients.
3) The methylene blue test can help detect leakage-type aspiration.
4) Aspiration is more likely with tracheostomy tubes than with endotracheal tubes.
(Multiple Choice)
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Ideally, the distal tip of a properly positioned endotracheal tube (in an adult man) should be positioned approximately how far above the carina?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following indicate an inability to adequately protect the airway?
1) Wheezing
2) Coma
3) Lack of gag reflex
4) Inability to cough
(Multiple Choice)
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Therapeutic indications for fiberoptic bronchoscopy include which of the following?
1) Inspect the airways.
2) Retrieve foreign bodies.
3) Obtain specimens for analysis.
4) Aid endotracheal intubation.
(Multiple Choice)
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A physician has requested your assistance in extubating an orally intubated patient. Which of the following should be done before the tube itself is removed?
1) Suction the orolaryngopharynx
2) Preoxygenate the patient
3) Suction the endotracheal tube
4) Confirm cuff inflation
(Multiple Choice)
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An alert patient with a long-term need for a tracheostomy tube (because of recurrent aspiration) is having difficulty communicating with the intensive care unit staff. Which of the following would you recommend to help this patient communicate better?
1) Use a letter, phrase, or picture board.
2) Consider switching to a fenestrated tracheostomy tube.
3) Consider a "talking" tracheostomy tube.
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient with a tracheal airway exhibits signs of tube obstruction. Which of the following are possible causes of this obstruction?
1) The tube cuff has herniated over the tip of the tube.
2) The tube is obstructed by a mucus plug or secretions.
3) The tube is kinked, or the patient is biting the tube.
4) The tube orifice is impinging on the tracheal wall.
(Multiple Choice)
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Although different techniques are used to actually remove the endotracheal tube during an extubation procedure, all aim to ensure which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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A physician is concerned about the potential for tracheal damage due to tube movement in a patient who recently underwent tracheotomy and is now receiving 40% oxygen through a T tube (Briggs adapter). Which of the following would be the best way to limit tube movement in this patient?
(Multiple Choice)
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After an intubation attempt, an expired capnogram indicates a CO2 level near zero. What does this finding probably indicate?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the purpose of a cuff on an artificial tracheal airway?
(Multiple Choice)
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