Exam 36: Airway Management
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care30 Questions
Exam 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care22 Questions
Exam 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping49 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control34 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice41 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care88 Questions
Exam 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care21 Questions
Exam 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research10 Questions
Exam 9: The Respiratory System129 Questions
Exam 10: The Cardiovascular System68 Questions
Exam 11: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 12: Gas Exchange and Transport88 Questions
Exam 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes94 Questions
Exam 14: Acid-Base Balance100 Questions
Exam 15: Regulation of Breathing50 Questions
Exam 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient100 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data38 Questions
Exam 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram35 Questions
Exam 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange115 Questions
Exam 20: Pulmonary Function Testing70 Questions
Exam 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging47 Questions
Exam 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist25 Questions
Exam 23: Nutrition Assessment46 Questions
Exam 24: Pulmonary Infections56 Questions
Exam 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases59 Questions
Exam 26: Interstitial Lung Disease45 Questions
Exam 27: Pleural Diseases42 Questions
Exam 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease57 Questions
Exam 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome30 Questions
Exam 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning21 Questions
Exam 31: Lung Cancer28 Questions
Exam 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall29 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Sleep30 Questions
Exam 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders70 Questions
Exam 35: Airway Pharmacology67 Questions
Exam 36: Airway Management117 Questions
Exam 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support70 Questions
Exam 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy109 Questions
Exam 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy116 Questions
Exam 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases78 Questions
Exam 41: Medical Gas Therapy93 Questions
Exam 42: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act90 Questions
Exam 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support54 Questions
Exam 45: Mechanical Ventilators70 Questions
Exam 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support89 Questions
Exam 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction22 Questions
Exam 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support97 Questions
Exam 49: Noninvasive Ventilation51 Questions
Exam 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls25 Questions
Exam 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit60 Questions
Exam 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support62 Questions
Exam 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care34 Questions
Exam 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion20 Questions
Exam 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation64 Questions
Exam 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings130 Questions
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During fiberoptic bronchoscopy, a patient receiving intravenous fentanyl exhibits signs of respiratory depression. Which of the following would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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After determining a patient has a complete obstruction of an oral endotracheal tube, your efforts to relieve the obstruction by moving the patient's head and neck and deflating the cuff both fail. What should be your next step?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following injuries are seen with tracheostomy tubes?
1) Tracheomalacia
2) Tracheal stenosis
3) Glottic edema
4) Vocal cord granulomas
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is false about cuff inflation techniques (MOV = minimal occluding volume; MLT = minimal leak technique)?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following autonomic or protective neural responses represent potential hazards of emergency airway management?
1) Hypotension
2) Bradycardia
3) Cardiac arrhythmias
4) Laryngospasm
(Multiple Choice)
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In the absence of neck or facial injuries, what is the procedure of choice to establish a patent tracheal airway in an emergency?
(Multiple Choice)
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For which of the following purposes is a tracheal button appropriate?
1) Facilitate secretion removal.
2) Protect the airways from aspiration.
3) Relieve airway obstruction.
4) Aid in positive-pressure ventilation.
(Multiple Choice)
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What size endotracheal tube would you select to intubate a 3-year-old child?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following are goals of airway preparation before conducting fiberoptic bronchoscopy?
1) To decrease cough and gagging
2) To decrease pain
3) To prevent bleeding
(Multiple Choice)
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Complications of fiberoptic bronchoscopy include which of the following?
1) Hypocapnia
2) Infection
3) Hypotension
4) Hypoxemia
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following are appropriate orders before an elective fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure scheduled for the next morning?
1) Have patient take nothing by mouth (NPO) after midnight.
2) Establish vascular access.
3) Premedicate with a benzodiazepine.
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following methods can help to reduce the likelihood of atelectasis due to tracheal suctioning?
1) Limit the amount of negative pressure used.
2) Hyperinflate the patient before and after the procedure.
3) Suction for as short a period of time as possible.
(Multiple Choice)
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(93)
A patient with a tracheostomy tube is receiving positive-pressure ventilation through a volume ventilator. Over the past 5 min, the peak inspiratory pressure has risen, and the pressure limit alarm is now sounding. On quick examination, you notice a generalized decreased in breath sounds. Which of the following problems is most likely?
(Multiple Choice)
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Serious complications of oral intubation include which of the following?
1) Cardiac arrest
2) Acute hypoxemia
3) Bradycardia
4) Tongue lacerations
(Multiple Choice)
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Repeated connecting and disconnecting of a cuff pressure manometer to the pilot tube of a cuffed tracheal airway will do which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the average distance from the tip of a properly positioned oral endotracheal tube to the incisors of an adult man?
(Multiple Choice)
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You are about to suction a female patient who has an 8-mm (internal diameter) endotracheal tube in place. What is the maximum size of catheter you would use in this case?
(Multiple Choice)
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