Exam 41: Medical Gas Therapy
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care30 Questions
Exam 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care22 Questions
Exam 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping49 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control34 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice41 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care88 Questions
Exam 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care21 Questions
Exam 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research10 Questions
Exam 9: The Respiratory System129 Questions
Exam 10: The Cardiovascular System68 Questions
Exam 11: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 12: Gas Exchange and Transport88 Questions
Exam 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes94 Questions
Exam 14: Acid-Base Balance100 Questions
Exam 15: Regulation of Breathing50 Questions
Exam 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient100 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data38 Questions
Exam 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram35 Questions
Exam 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange115 Questions
Exam 20: Pulmonary Function Testing70 Questions
Exam 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging47 Questions
Exam 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist25 Questions
Exam 23: Nutrition Assessment46 Questions
Exam 24: Pulmonary Infections56 Questions
Exam 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases59 Questions
Exam 26: Interstitial Lung Disease45 Questions
Exam 27: Pleural Diseases42 Questions
Exam 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease57 Questions
Exam 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome30 Questions
Exam 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning21 Questions
Exam 31: Lung Cancer28 Questions
Exam 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall29 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Sleep30 Questions
Exam 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders70 Questions
Exam 35: Airway Pharmacology67 Questions
Exam 36: Airway Management117 Questions
Exam 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support70 Questions
Exam 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy109 Questions
Exam 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy116 Questions
Exam 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases78 Questions
Exam 41: Medical Gas Therapy93 Questions
Exam 42: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act90 Questions
Exam 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support54 Questions
Exam 45: Mechanical Ventilators70 Questions
Exam 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support89 Questions
Exam 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction22 Questions
Exam 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support97 Questions
Exam 49: Noninvasive Ventilation51 Questions
Exam 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls25 Questions
Exam 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit60 Questions
Exam 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support62 Questions
Exam 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care34 Questions
Exam 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion20 Questions
Exam 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation64 Questions
Exam 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings130 Questions
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A well-designed oxygen protocol will ensure which of the following?
1) The patient undergoes initial assessment.
2) The patient is evaluated for protocol criteria.
3) The patient receives a treatment plan that is modified according to need.
4) The patient stops receiving therapy as soon as it is no longer needed.
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
D
A physician requests that you provide a patient with exactly 40% O2 at a flow of 60 L/min. Lacking a blender, you must manually mix air and O2 to achieve the desired mixture at the prescribed flow. Which of the following air and O2 flows would you select? Air (L/min) O2 (L/min)
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
A
Which of the following would indicate a need for O2 therapy for an adult or a child?
1) SaO2 less than 90%
2) PaCO2 greater than 45 mm Hg
3) PaO2 less than 60 mm Hg
Free
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(76)
Correct Answer:
D
Which of the following would indicate adequate oxygenation for adult patients with chronic lung disease and an accompanying acute-on-chronic hypoxemia?
1) SaO2 of 90% or higher
2) PaO2 of 50 to 60 mm Hg
3) SaO2 of 85% to 90%
(Multiple Choice)
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A variant of a common low-flow, nasal O2 delivery device that is capable of providing both high humidity and a high FiO2 is known as which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the upper limit of O2 concentrations available through tents?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient receiving 3 L/min O2 through a nasal cannula has a measured SpO2 of 93% and no clinical signs of hypoxemia. At this point, what should you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following statements are true about low-flow O2 delivery systems?
1) The greater the patient's inspiratory flow, the greater is the FiO2.
2) All low-flow devices provide variable O2 concentrations.
3) The O2 provided by a low-flow device is diluted with air.
4) The patient's flow usually exceeds that from a low-flow device.
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following are true about air-entrainment systems?
1) Their FiO2 values are directly proportional to their total flow.
2) They can provide variable FiO2 values under some clinical conditions.
3) They always deliver O2 concentrations less than 100%.
4) They yield a set FiO2 only if their flow exceeds the patient's.
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following are advantages of the nasal cannula as a low-flow O2 delivery system?
1) Stability
2) Low cost
3) Easy application
4) Disposability
(Multiple Choice)
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You are giving a 80% He:20% O2 mixture to an asthmatic patient through a nonrebreathing mask with a compensated Thorpe tube O2 flowmeter set at 8 L/min. What is the actual flow being delivered to the patient?
(Multiple Choice)
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Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is a potentially serious management problem mainly in the care of whom?
(Multiple Choice)
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In which of the following procedures is air embolism a potential complication?
1) Central line placement
2) Lung biopsy
3) Hemodialysis
(Multiple Choice)
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A physician wants a stable FiO2 of 0.5 for a newborn infant with severe hypoxemia. Which of the following systems would you select?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the most common complication of hyperbaric oxygen therapy?
(Multiple Choice)
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Some strategies for minimizing the risk of fire hazard with O2 therapy include which of the following?
1) Using the lowest effective FiO2
2) Properly educating patients and caregivers
3) Avoiding aluminum regulators and other high-risk devices
4) Mixing the oxygen with carbon dioxide.
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the maximum FiO2 expected to be delivered by most air-entrainment masks?
(Multiple Choice)
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Benefits of properly applied O2 therapy in patients with chronic hypoxemia include which of the following?
1) Reversal of pulmonary vasoconstriction
2) Relief of pulmonary hypertension
3) Decreased right ventricular workload
4) Improved pulmonary vital capacity
(Multiple Choice)
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You set up an Oxy-Hood with an FiO2 of 0.5 for a newborn infant. What is the maximum time that should pass before assessing this patient's PaO2 or SaO2?
(Multiple Choice)
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Directing a cool O2 mixture to an infant in an Oxy-Hood can result in which of the following?
1) Increased O2 consumption
2) Increased convective heat loss
3) Apnea (cessation of breathing)
(Multiple Choice)
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