Exam 41: Medical Gas Therapy
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care30 Questions
Exam 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care22 Questions
Exam 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping49 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control34 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice41 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care88 Questions
Exam 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care21 Questions
Exam 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research10 Questions
Exam 9: The Respiratory System129 Questions
Exam 10: The Cardiovascular System68 Questions
Exam 11: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 12: Gas Exchange and Transport88 Questions
Exam 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes94 Questions
Exam 14: Acid-Base Balance100 Questions
Exam 15: Regulation of Breathing50 Questions
Exam 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient100 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data38 Questions
Exam 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram35 Questions
Exam 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange115 Questions
Exam 20: Pulmonary Function Testing70 Questions
Exam 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging47 Questions
Exam 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist25 Questions
Exam 23: Nutrition Assessment46 Questions
Exam 24: Pulmonary Infections56 Questions
Exam 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases59 Questions
Exam 26: Interstitial Lung Disease45 Questions
Exam 27: Pleural Diseases42 Questions
Exam 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease57 Questions
Exam 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome30 Questions
Exam 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning21 Questions
Exam 31: Lung Cancer28 Questions
Exam 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall29 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Sleep30 Questions
Exam 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders70 Questions
Exam 35: Airway Pharmacology67 Questions
Exam 36: Airway Management117 Questions
Exam 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support70 Questions
Exam 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy109 Questions
Exam 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy116 Questions
Exam 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases78 Questions
Exam 41: Medical Gas Therapy93 Questions
Exam 42: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act90 Questions
Exam 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support54 Questions
Exam 45: Mechanical Ventilators70 Questions
Exam 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support89 Questions
Exam 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction22 Questions
Exam 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support97 Questions
Exam 49: Noninvasive Ventilation51 Questions
Exam 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls25 Questions
Exam 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit60 Questions
Exam 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support62 Questions
Exam 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care34 Questions
Exam 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion20 Questions
Exam 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation64 Questions
Exam 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings130 Questions
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Which of the following factors determine the actual O2 provided by an air-entrainment system?
1) O2 input flow to the jet
2) Air-to-O2 ratio of the device
3) Resistance downstream from the jet
(Multiple Choice)
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(89)
You design an air-entrainment system that mixes air with O2 at a fixed ratio of 1:7. Approximately what O2 concentration will this device provide?
(Multiple Choice)
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Physiologic effects of hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) therapy include all of the following except:
(Multiple Choice)
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What is/are the primary organ system(s) affected by O2 toxicity?
1) Central nervous system (CNS)
2) Lungs
3) Kidneys
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the minimum flow setting for a simple mask applied to an adult?
(Multiple Choice)
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A 45-year-old patient with congestive heart failure is receiving O2 through a 35% air-entrainment mask. With an O2 input of 6 L/min, what is the total output gas flow?
(Multiple Choice)
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Mixtures of carbon dioxide and oxygen in blends of 5%:95% or 7%:93%, which are occasionally used to prevent complete washout of carbon dioxide during cardiopulmonary bypass or treat hiccoughs is known as which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following conditions can be treated with hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) therapy?
1) Carbon monoxide poisoning
2) Septic shock
3) Air embolism
4) Clostridial gangrene
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient is receiving O2 through a nonrebreathing mask set at 8 L/min. You notice that the mask's reservoir bag collapses completely before the end of each inspiration. Which of the following actions is appropriate in this case?
(Multiple Choice)
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In giving O2 to an infant through a hood, which of the following are correct?
1) A neutral thermal environment should be maintained.
2) Gases should be directed away from the infant's face.
3) High input flow (>10 to 15 L/min) should be avoided.
4) A minimum flow of 7 L/min must be maintained.
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient breathing 100% O2 for 24 hr or longer would most likely exhibit which of the following?
1) Decreased DLCO
2) Decreased CL
3) Increased PAO2 - PaO2
4) Decreased VC
(Multiple Choice)
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A well-fitted nonrebreathing mask, adjusted so that the patient's inhalation does not deflate the bag (flows approximately 10 L/min), should provide inspired O2 concentrations in what range?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following alternatives may increase the FiO2 capabilities of air-entrainment nebulizers?
1) Add open reservoir to expiratory side of T tube.
2) Connect together two or more nebulizers.
3) Use a commercial dual-flow system.
4) Add open reservoir to inspiratory side of T tube.
(Multiple Choice)
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During hyperbaric oxygen therapy at 3 ATA, plasma contains about how much dissolved O2?
(Multiple Choice)
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To ensure a stable FiO2 under varying patient demands, what must an O2 delivery system do?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient with chronic hypercapnia placed on an FiO2 of 0.6 starts hypoventilating. What is a possible cause of this phenomenon?
(Multiple Choice)
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Toxic side effects of inhaled NO include which of the following?
1) Acute pulmonary edema
2) Direct cellular damage
3) Impaired surfactant production
4) Sulfhemoglobinemia
(Multiple Choice)
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You enter the room of a patient who is receiving nasal O2 through a bubble humidifier at 5 L/min. You immediately notice that the humidifier pressure relief is popping off. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate in this situation?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the recommended maximum initial dose of inhaled NO in neonates with respiratory distress syndrome?
(Multiple Choice)
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What does 1 atmospheric pressure absolute (ATA) equal?
1) 101 kPa
2) 50 psi
3) 760 mm Hg
(Multiple Choice)
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