Exam 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care30 Questions
Exam 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care22 Questions
Exam 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping49 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control34 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice41 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care88 Questions
Exam 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care21 Questions
Exam 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research10 Questions
Exam 9: The Respiratory System129 Questions
Exam 10: The Cardiovascular System68 Questions
Exam 11: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 12: Gas Exchange and Transport88 Questions
Exam 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes94 Questions
Exam 14: Acid-Base Balance100 Questions
Exam 15: Regulation of Breathing50 Questions
Exam 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient100 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data38 Questions
Exam 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram35 Questions
Exam 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange115 Questions
Exam 20: Pulmonary Function Testing70 Questions
Exam 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging47 Questions
Exam 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist25 Questions
Exam 23: Nutrition Assessment46 Questions
Exam 24: Pulmonary Infections56 Questions
Exam 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases59 Questions
Exam 26: Interstitial Lung Disease45 Questions
Exam 27: Pleural Diseases42 Questions
Exam 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease57 Questions
Exam 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome30 Questions
Exam 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning21 Questions
Exam 31: Lung Cancer28 Questions
Exam 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall29 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Sleep30 Questions
Exam 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders70 Questions
Exam 35: Airway Pharmacology67 Questions
Exam 36: Airway Management117 Questions
Exam 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support70 Questions
Exam 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy109 Questions
Exam 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy116 Questions
Exam 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases78 Questions
Exam 41: Medical Gas Therapy93 Questions
Exam 42: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act90 Questions
Exam 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support54 Questions
Exam 45: Mechanical Ventilators70 Questions
Exam 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support89 Questions
Exam 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction22 Questions
Exam 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support97 Questions
Exam 49: Noninvasive Ventilation51 Questions
Exam 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls25 Questions
Exam 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit60 Questions
Exam 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support62 Questions
Exam 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care34 Questions
Exam 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion20 Questions
Exam 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation64 Questions
Exam 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings130 Questions
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Which of the following best describes positive expiratory pressure (PEP) therapy?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient with abdominal muscle weakness is having difficulty developing an effective cough. Which of the following phases of the cough reflex are primarily affected in this patient?
1) Irritation
2) Inspiration
3) Compression
4) Expulsion
(Multiple Choice)
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(75)
A patient with a neuromuscular disorder causing generalized muscle weakness is having difficulty developing an effective cough. Which of the following cough phases are primarily affected in this patient?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following airway clearance techniques would you recommend for a patient with a neurologic abnormality (bulbar palsy) and intact upper airway?
1) Postural drainage, percussion, and vibration
2) Positive expiratory pressure therapy
3) Mechanical insufflation-exsufflation
(Multiple Choice)
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A typical mechanical insufflation-exsufflation treatment session should continue until what point?
1) Secretions are cleared.
2) The vital capacity (VC) returns to baseline.
3) The SpO2 returns to baseline.
(Multiple Choice)
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(84)
Which of the following are hazards of positive airway pressure therapies (EPAP, PEP, CPAP)?
1) Decreased venous return
2) Epistaxis
3) Pulmonary barotrauma
4) Increased intracranial pressure
(Multiple Choice)
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A physician orders postural drainage for a patient with aspiration pneumonia in the superior segments of the left lower lobe. Which of the following positions would you recommend for this patient?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the correct sequence of actions during the active cycle of breathing (ACB) method?
1) Relaxation and breathing control
2) Three or four thoracic expansion exercises
3) One or two FETs (huffs)
(Multiple Choice)
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(88)
A physician orders bronchodilator drug therapy in combination with positive expiratory pressure (PEP). Which of the following methods could you use to provide this combined therapy?
1) Attach a dry powder inhaler in-line with the PEP apparatus.
2) Attach a metered dose inhaler to the system's one-way valve inlet.
3) Place a small volume nebulizer in-line with the PEP apparatus.
(Multiple Choice)
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(72)
Under which of the following conditions would mechanical insufflation-exsufflation with an oronasal mask probably be effective?
1) If the glottis collapses during exsufflation
2) Presence of fixed airway obstruction
3) Presence of a chronic neuromuscular disorder
(Multiple Choice)
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(86)
Which of the following conditions alter normal mucociliary clearance?
1) Bronchospasm
2) Cystic fibrosis (CF)
3) Ciliary dyskinesia
4) Asthma
(Multiple Choice)
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(72)
Which of the following are typical of high-frequency external chest wall compression therapy?
1) 30-min therapy sessions
2) Long inspiratory oscillations
3) One to six sessions per day
4) Oscillations at 20 to 25 Hz
(Multiple Choice)
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(68)
Which of the following are true of postural drainage?
1) It is most effective in disorders causing excessive sputum.
2) It is most effective in head-down positions greater than 25 degrees.
3) It requires adequate systemic hydration to be effective.
4) It improves mucociliary clearance in normal subjects.
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following parts are required to conduct high-frequency external chest wall compression?
1) Variable air-pulse generator
2) Expiratory flow resistor with one-way valve
3) Nonstretch inflatable thoracic vest
(Multiple Choice)
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Conditions that can lead to bronchiectasis include which of the following?
1) Chronic airway infection
2) Muscular dystrophy
3) Foreign body aspiration
4) Obliterative bronchiolitis
(Multiple Choice)
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In which of the following patients would you consider modifying any head-down positions used for postural drainage?
1) A patient with unstable blood pressure
2) A patient with a cerebrovascular disorder
3) A patient with systemic hypertension
4) A patient with orthopnea
(Multiple Choice)
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The application of gravity to achieve specific clinical objectives in respiratory care best describes which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following drug categories can impair mucociliary clearance in intubated patients?
1) General anesthetics
2) Bronchodilators
3) Opiates
4) Narcotics
(Multiple Choice)
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(88)
Which of the following are hazards or complication of postural drainage therapy?
1) Cardiac arrhythmias
2) Increased intracranial pressure
3) Acute hypotension
4) Pulmonary barotraumas
(Multiple Choice)
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(75)
Which of the following determines effectiveness of high-frequency external chest wall compression therapy?
1) Compression frequency
2) Largest volumes
3) Flow bias
(Multiple Choice)
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