Exam 24: Myeloproliferative Neoplasms
Exam 1: Introduction32 Questions
Exam 2: Cellular Homeostasis40 Questions
Exam 3: Structure and Function of Hematopoietic Organs35 Questions
Exam 4: Hematopoiesis35 Questions
Exam 5: The Erythrocyte37 Questions
Exam 6: Hemoglobin40 Questions
Exam 7: Granulocytes and Monocytes30 Questions
Exam 8: Lymphocytes25 Questions
Exam 9: The Platelet18 Questions
Exam 10: The Complete Blood Count and Peripheral Blood Smear Evaluation40 Questions
Exam 11: Introduction to Anemia34 Questions
Exam 12: Anemias of Disordered Iron Metabolism and Heme Synthesis40 Questions
Exam 13: Hemoglobinopathies: Qualitative Defects33 Questions
Exam 14: Thalassemia32 Questions
Exam 15: Megaloblastic and Nonmegaloblastic Macrocytic Anemias33 Questions
Exam 16: Hypoproliferative Anemias31 Questions
Exam 17: Hemolytic Anemia: Membrane Defects36 Questions
Exam 18: Hemolytic Anemia: Enzyme Deficiencies36 Questions
Exam 19: Hemolytic Anemia: Immune Anemias32 Questions
Exam 20: Hemolytic Anemia: Nonimmune Defects30 Questions
Exam 21: Nonmalignant Disorders of Leukocytes: Granulocytes and Monocytes36 Questions
Exam 22: Nonmalignant Lymphocyte Disorders35 Questions
Exam 23: Introduction to Hematopoietic Neoplasms33 Questions
Exam 24: Myeloproliferative Neoplasms43 Questions
Exam 25: Myelodysplastic Syndromes34 Questions
Exam 26: Acute Myeloid Leukemias36 Questions
Exam 27: Precursor Lymphoid Neoplasms33 Questions
Exam 28: Mature Lymphoid Neoplasms41 Questions
Exam 29: Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation41 Questions
Exam 30: Morphologic Analysis of Body Fluids in the Hematology42 Questions
Exam 31: Primary Hemostasis32 Questions
Exam 32: Secondary Hemostasis and Fibrinolysis35 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis36 Questions
Exam 34: Disorders of Secondary Hemostasis31 Questions
Exam 35: Thrombophilia38 Questions
Exam 36: Hemostasis: Laboratory Testing and Instrumentation50 Questions
Exam 37: Hematology Procedures44 Questions
Exam 38: Bone Marrow Examination33 Questions
Exam 39: Automation in Hematology27 Questions
Exam 40: Flow Cytometry33 Questions
Exam 41: Chromosome Analysis of Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Disorders34 Questions
Exam 42: Molecular Analysis of Hematologic Diseases17 Questions
Exam 43: Quality Assessment in the Hematology Laboratory29 Questions
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The characteristic poikilocyte often seen in the peripheral blood of patients with PMF that indicates extramedullary hematopoiesis is:
(Multiple Choice)
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What substance(s) is(are) primarily responsible for stimulating the growth and proliferation of fibroblasts in PMF?
(Multiple Choice)
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A known CML patient's blood is received in the lab for a routine CBC. The laboraty professional counts 55% blasts in the smear. The most likely reason for this occurrence is that the patient is in:
(Multiple Choice)
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The key factor to distinguish relative and absolute polycythemia is that a relative polycythemia is caused by:
(Multiple Choice)
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Which myeloproliferative disorder typically produces a dramatic increase in all cell lines?
(Multiple Choice)
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A 45-year-old patient visits his physician for a routine examination to address his hypertension. The patient has prominent splenomegaly and rosy cheeks. He is also a smoker. Lab values are: EPO: elevated
WBC count: 18.4 × 109/L4
RBC: 6.84 × 1012/L
PLT: 705 × 109/L
Based on these findings, what would you expect to find in the bone marrow?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which is a characteristic of ET that would help distinguish it from reactive thrombocytosis?
(Multiple Choice)
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A routine CBC is ordered on a patient. Results are as follows: WBC count: 22.0 × 109/L
PLT: 957 × 109/L
RBC: 5.00 × 1012/L
PB smear: moderate platelet clumping and giant platelets noted
These results are characteristic of which disorder?
(Multiple Choice)
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Compare and contrast MPN and MDS with regard to proliferation, differentiation, and cell death.
(Essay)
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A patient's laboratory results indicate a markedly increased hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell count. White blood cells and platelets are also slightly increased. The erythropoietin level is decreased. Which is most likely:
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following genes is associated with clonal hypereosinophilia?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following myeloproliferative disorders is characterized by an elevated white count and a markedly elevated platelet count?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which is found in >90% of cases of PV and promotes EPO receptor activation?
(Multiple Choice)
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The presence of which of the following in the bone marrow would lead a clinician to the diagnosis of a myeloproliferative disorder rather than an acute leukemia?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient presents with a moderate leukoerythroblastic anemia, striking anisocytosis, and poikilocytosis. The anemia is normocytic, normochromic. Large platelets are noted. Dacryocytes, elliptocytes, and ovalocytes are present. Basophilic stippling is present. What disease is associated with these findings?
(Multiple Choice)
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The myeloproliferative disorder best described by increased leukocytes, immature granulocytes, and decreased LAP with the Philadelphia chromosome present is which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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Contrast primary polycythemia and secondary polycythemia based on pathophysiology.
(Essay)
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Which of the following tests would help differentiate ET from other causes of thrombocytosis?
(Multiple Choice)
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A physician strongly suspects CML in a patient and has already ordered a bone marrow differential and cytogenetic analysis for the Philadelphia chromosome. What other test would help confirm the CML picture for this patient?
(Multiple Choice)
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