Exam 40: Flow Cytometry
Exam 1: Introduction32 Questions
Exam 2: Cellular Homeostasis40 Questions
Exam 3: Structure and Function of Hematopoietic Organs35 Questions
Exam 4: Hematopoiesis35 Questions
Exam 5: The Erythrocyte37 Questions
Exam 6: Hemoglobin40 Questions
Exam 7: Granulocytes and Monocytes30 Questions
Exam 8: Lymphocytes25 Questions
Exam 9: The Platelet18 Questions
Exam 10: The Complete Blood Count and Peripheral Blood Smear Evaluation40 Questions
Exam 11: Introduction to Anemia34 Questions
Exam 12: Anemias of Disordered Iron Metabolism and Heme Synthesis40 Questions
Exam 13: Hemoglobinopathies: Qualitative Defects33 Questions
Exam 14: Thalassemia32 Questions
Exam 15: Megaloblastic and Nonmegaloblastic Macrocytic Anemias33 Questions
Exam 16: Hypoproliferative Anemias31 Questions
Exam 17: Hemolytic Anemia: Membrane Defects36 Questions
Exam 18: Hemolytic Anemia: Enzyme Deficiencies36 Questions
Exam 19: Hemolytic Anemia: Immune Anemias32 Questions
Exam 20: Hemolytic Anemia: Nonimmune Defects30 Questions
Exam 21: Nonmalignant Disorders of Leukocytes: Granulocytes and Monocytes36 Questions
Exam 22: Nonmalignant Lymphocyte Disorders35 Questions
Exam 23: Introduction to Hematopoietic Neoplasms33 Questions
Exam 24: Myeloproliferative Neoplasms43 Questions
Exam 25: Myelodysplastic Syndromes34 Questions
Exam 26: Acute Myeloid Leukemias36 Questions
Exam 27: Precursor Lymphoid Neoplasms33 Questions
Exam 28: Mature Lymphoid Neoplasms41 Questions
Exam 29: Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation41 Questions
Exam 30: Morphologic Analysis of Body Fluids in the Hematology42 Questions
Exam 31: Primary Hemostasis32 Questions
Exam 32: Secondary Hemostasis and Fibrinolysis35 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis36 Questions
Exam 34: Disorders of Secondary Hemostasis31 Questions
Exam 35: Thrombophilia38 Questions
Exam 36: Hemostasis: Laboratory Testing and Instrumentation50 Questions
Exam 37: Hematology Procedures44 Questions
Exam 38: Bone Marrow Examination33 Questions
Exam 39: Automation in Hematology27 Questions
Exam 40: Flow Cytometry33 Questions
Exam 41: Chromosome Analysis of Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Disorders34 Questions
Exam 42: Molecular Analysis of Hematologic Diseases17 Questions
Exam 43: Quality Assessment in the Hematology Laboratory29 Questions
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Neoplasms are made up of a population of identical cells or a clone of cells. When identified, the clone can lead to the discovery of a lymphoid malignancy or other lymphoproliferative disorder. Clonality be detected by:
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
A
Which of the following is considered a drawback of immunophenotyping a suspected acute leukemia?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
B
CD34 enumeration is useful in bone marrow and peripheral blood stem cell transplantation. For this enumeration, the EWGCCA recommendations include proper technique and interpretation of the flow cytometry analysis. Which of the following standards was recommended for proper acquisition of events?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
C
The EWGCCA recommends performing which of the following with CD34 enumeration?
(Multiple Choice)
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A flow instrument printout reveals a single scatter population of small size and low complexity. Ninety percent of the cells in that population have CD2 on their surface. What is the most probable lineage of the unknown population?
(Multiple Choice)
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An unknown cell resembling a hematogone has CD19 and CD20 antigens. What is the unknown cell's lineage?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which analyte is the best indicator of the overall picture of the immune system in an HIV-positive patient?
(Multiple Choice)
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Flow results on a patient sample revealed an absence of CD20 and CD19 on the B-lymphocytes as well as an absence of BTK in monocytes and platelets. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which markers are useful in immunophenotyping for leukemia/lymphoma of T cell-lineage?
(Multiple Choice)
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Immunophenotyping is essential for diagnosing ALL, separating T- and B- lineage ALL, and identifying subtypes of B lineage ALL. What markers can blasts express in precursor B cell ALL?
(Multiple Choice)
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Name at least two pitfalls in immunophenotyping mature lymphoid malignancies, and explain how you would correct this.
(Essay)
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Rituximab, an anti-CD20 antibody, has been found to be effective in treating:
(Multiple Choice)
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The DNA content of a patient's tumor cells is reported as 2.0, and the DNA content of diploid cells is 1.0. What is the DNA index?
(Multiple Choice)
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The following are accurate statements regarding fluorochromes except which one?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is one advantage to using monoclonal antibodies rather than polyclonal antibodies in immunophenotyping?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is not the component(s) of a flow cytometer?
(Multiple Choice)
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A strategy for determining MRD in AML that has been advocated is:
(Multiple Choice)
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The expression of several antigens from two different lineages complicates the categorizing the diagnosis as AML or ALL. This biphenotypic expression toward more than one lineage restricts the use of immunophenotyping. In differentiating AML and ALL, staining with which of the following cytochemical stains indicates AML?
(Multiple Choice)
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