Exam 25: Myelodysplastic Syndromes
Exam 1: Introduction32 Questions
Exam 2: Cellular Homeostasis40 Questions
Exam 3: Structure and Function of Hematopoietic Organs35 Questions
Exam 4: Hematopoiesis35 Questions
Exam 5: The Erythrocyte37 Questions
Exam 6: Hemoglobin40 Questions
Exam 7: Granulocytes and Monocytes30 Questions
Exam 8: Lymphocytes25 Questions
Exam 9: The Platelet18 Questions
Exam 10: The Complete Blood Count and Peripheral Blood Smear Evaluation40 Questions
Exam 11: Introduction to Anemia34 Questions
Exam 12: Anemias of Disordered Iron Metabolism and Heme Synthesis40 Questions
Exam 13: Hemoglobinopathies: Qualitative Defects33 Questions
Exam 14: Thalassemia32 Questions
Exam 15: Megaloblastic and Nonmegaloblastic Macrocytic Anemias33 Questions
Exam 16: Hypoproliferative Anemias31 Questions
Exam 17: Hemolytic Anemia: Membrane Defects36 Questions
Exam 18: Hemolytic Anemia: Enzyme Deficiencies36 Questions
Exam 19: Hemolytic Anemia: Immune Anemias32 Questions
Exam 20: Hemolytic Anemia: Nonimmune Defects30 Questions
Exam 21: Nonmalignant Disorders of Leukocytes: Granulocytes and Monocytes36 Questions
Exam 22: Nonmalignant Lymphocyte Disorders35 Questions
Exam 23: Introduction to Hematopoietic Neoplasms33 Questions
Exam 24: Myeloproliferative Neoplasms43 Questions
Exam 25: Myelodysplastic Syndromes34 Questions
Exam 26: Acute Myeloid Leukemias36 Questions
Exam 27: Precursor Lymphoid Neoplasms33 Questions
Exam 28: Mature Lymphoid Neoplasms41 Questions
Exam 29: Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation41 Questions
Exam 30: Morphologic Analysis of Body Fluids in the Hematology42 Questions
Exam 31: Primary Hemostasis32 Questions
Exam 32: Secondary Hemostasis and Fibrinolysis35 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis36 Questions
Exam 34: Disorders of Secondary Hemostasis31 Questions
Exam 35: Thrombophilia38 Questions
Exam 36: Hemostasis: Laboratory Testing and Instrumentation50 Questions
Exam 37: Hematology Procedures44 Questions
Exam 38: Bone Marrow Examination33 Questions
Exam 39: Automation in Hematology27 Questions
Exam 40: Flow Cytometry33 Questions
Exam 41: Chromosome Analysis of Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Disorders34 Questions
Exam 42: Molecular Analysis of Hematologic Diseases17 Questions
Exam 43: Quality Assessment in the Hematology Laboratory29 Questions
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Explain the International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) score system for prognosis and treatment of MDS.
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(Essay)
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Correct Answer:
The IPSS for MDS assigns a score based on the progression of the disease. The higher the number of immature cells present, the worse the prognosis and the lower the survival rate.
Myelodysplastic syndromes are sometimes called preleukemias because:
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
A
Which of the following laboratory tests would not be helpful in identifying MDS/MPN, U?
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(Multiple Choice)
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A
All of the following are included in the MDS/MPN family except:
(Multiple Choice)
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Which test or tests support the theory that the abnormal cells in MDS are clones derived from an abnormal pluripotent stem cell?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following does the World Health Organization's classification consider an MDS/MPN variant?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following MDS/MPN classifications includes the immunophenotype CD33, CD13 +, MPO +?
(Multiple Choice)
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A 60-year-old patient visited his general practitioner because of fatigue and unexplained bruising. Physical examination revealed a frail, thin, pale man with widespread bruising. A CBC was ordered and revealed abnormal granularity of platelets and leukocytes. Red cells appeared dimorphic. Bone marrow analysis showed 20% ringed sideroblasts with dysplastic changes in RBC and WBC precursors. No cytogenetic abnormalities were detected. Based on this information, what is a probable diagnosis?
(Multiple Choice)
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What must be seen in the bone marrow to confirm refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts?
(Multiple Choice)
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A 58-year-old male visits his physician for extreme fatigue. After conducting a standard investigation, the physician strongly suspects that the patient is suffering from CML. Which of the following lab results would confirm this picture?
(Multiple Choice)
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A 61-year-old woman saw her primary care physician because of fatigue and dyspnea on exertion for the past 3 months. Past medical history noted that the patient had been treated 5 years earlier with the DNA alkylating agent cyclophosphamide, non-Hodgkin lymphoma. A CBC revealed the following:
WBC: 3.6 × 109/L
RBC: 2.8 × 1012/L
Hb: 9.1 g/dL
MCV: 104 fL
Reticulocyte count: 2.0%
Normal vitamin B12 and folic acid levels
PLT: 120 × 109/L
Differential: 6% blasts
A bone marrow biopsy revealed hypercellularity, and dyshematopoiesis of all three myeloid lineages.
Suggest an appropriate follow-up test and a likely diagnosis for this patient.
(Essay)
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According to the WHO classification, what percent of blasts must be present in the bone marrow to classify a patient with acute leukemia?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following characteristics are associated with a poor prognosis for MDS?
(Multiple Choice)
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On which characteristic is the WHO classification system for each subgroup of myelodysplastic syndrome based?
(Multiple Choice)
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All of the following are considered morphologic evidence of dyserythropoiesis except:
(Multiple Choice)
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Which World Health Organization (WHO) classification for MDS is best supported when the peripheral blood shows a general cytopenia, 5-19% blasts with Auer rods, and <1 × 109 /L monocytes?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is a defining characteristic of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS)?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient blood smear shows oval macrocytes, a dimorphic population, and basophilic stippling. The peripheral blood also has 6% blasts. What is the presumptive classification based on these findings?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is a likely diagnosis in a 55-year-old male with a bone marrow cellularity of 22%?
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