Exam 21: Nonmalignant Disorders of Leukocytes: Granulocytes and Monocytes
Exam 1: Introduction32 Questions
Exam 2: Cellular Homeostasis40 Questions
Exam 3: Structure and Function of Hematopoietic Organs35 Questions
Exam 4: Hematopoiesis35 Questions
Exam 5: The Erythrocyte37 Questions
Exam 6: Hemoglobin40 Questions
Exam 7: Granulocytes and Monocytes30 Questions
Exam 8: Lymphocytes25 Questions
Exam 9: The Platelet18 Questions
Exam 10: The Complete Blood Count and Peripheral Blood Smear Evaluation40 Questions
Exam 11: Introduction to Anemia34 Questions
Exam 12: Anemias of Disordered Iron Metabolism and Heme Synthesis40 Questions
Exam 13: Hemoglobinopathies: Qualitative Defects33 Questions
Exam 14: Thalassemia32 Questions
Exam 15: Megaloblastic and Nonmegaloblastic Macrocytic Anemias33 Questions
Exam 16: Hypoproliferative Anemias31 Questions
Exam 17: Hemolytic Anemia: Membrane Defects36 Questions
Exam 18: Hemolytic Anemia: Enzyme Deficiencies36 Questions
Exam 19: Hemolytic Anemia: Immune Anemias32 Questions
Exam 20: Hemolytic Anemia: Nonimmune Defects30 Questions
Exam 21: Nonmalignant Disorders of Leukocytes: Granulocytes and Monocytes36 Questions
Exam 22: Nonmalignant Lymphocyte Disorders35 Questions
Exam 23: Introduction to Hematopoietic Neoplasms33 Questions
Exam 24: Myeloproliferative Neoplasms43 Questions
Exam 25: Myelodysplastic Syndromes34 Questions
Exam 26: Acute Myeloid Leukemias36 Questions
Exam 27: Precursor Lymphoid Neoplasms33 Questions
Exam 28: Mature Lymphoid Neoplasms41 Questions
Exam 29: Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation41 Questions
Exam 30: Morphologic Analysis of Body Fluids in the Hematology42 Questions
Exam 31: Primary Hemostasis32 Questions
Exam 32: Secondary Hemostasis and Fibrinolysis35 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis36 Questions
Exam 34: Disorders of Secondary Hemostasis31 Questions
Exam 35: Thrombophilia38 Questions
Exam 36: Hemostasis: Laboratory Testing and Instrumentation50 Questions
Exam 37: Hematology Procedures44 Questions
Exam 38: Bone Marrow Examination33 Questions
Exam 39: Automation in Hematology27 Questions
Exam 40: Flow Cytometry33 Questions
Exam 41: Chromosome Analysis of Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Disorders34 Questions
Exam 42: Molecular Analysis of Hematologic Diseases17 Questions
Exam 43: Quality Assessment in the Hematology Laboratory29 Questions
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A patient presents with larger-than-normal neutrophils with hypersegmentation, oval macrocytes, and pancytopenia. This could be an indicator of:
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
C
A disorder characterized by a defect in glucocerebrosidase that results in a macrophage with cytoplasm appearing wrinkled or striated is:
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
C
Acute infection, inflammatory reaction, and administration of glucocorticosteroids can result in:
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
B
A patient has a high fever, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated liver enzymes. A blood smear shows WBCs with large basophilic, spherical cellular inclusions. Which of the following is a likely cause for these findings?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following characteristics is associated with the neutrophilia that accompanies bacterial infection?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient presents with neutrophilia of 40 109/L with many circulating immature cells. The blood contains many bands, metamyelocytes, myelocytes, promyelocytes, and a rare blast. No nucleated erythrocytes are present. What disease state is most likely with these results?
(Multiple Choice)
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Name a type of condition that might cause the following alterations in morphology.
a. Toxic granulation
b. Vacuolization
c. Morulae
d. Eosinophilia
(Essay)
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Interpret the following results: WBC count, 1.4 × 109/L; bone marrow shows myeloid hypoplasia with a decreased M:E ratio of 1:1. There is no history of medications or drug exposure. What can be concluded from this?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is associated with bacterial infections?
(Multiple Choice)
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List three laboratory results that can distinguish a leukemoid reaction from CML.
(Essay)
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A patient has an elevated WBC count with many circulating leukocyte precursors and a normal RBC count. Which of the following assays provides information that can best be used to diagnose this patient?
(Multiple Choice)
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What causes sea-blue histiocytosis, and how is the sea-blue histiocyte identified?
(Essay)
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A patient presents with a leukocyte count of 120 × 109/L and splenomegaly. The blood smear reveals a shift to the left with promyelocytes and blasts. The platelets are increased, and the LAP is decreased. Which condition is associated with these results?
(Multiple Choice)
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A peripheral blood smear examination shows many WBCs with many blue-staining round inclusions. Thrombocytopenia with giant platelets is present. What autosomal dominant disease is associated with these findings?
(Multiple Choice)
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A laboratician is scanning a blood smear and notices that many of the neutrophils have more than six lobes. Which of the following would be consistent with that finding?
(Multiple Choice)
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An adult patient's blood sample was collected in an EDTA blood collection tube for a CBC. The automated WBC count was 2.1 × 109/L. Upon microscopic examination of the cells, the laboratory professional noted that the neutrophils adhered to the erythrocytes. What corrective action should be taken in this situation?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is most likely able to distinguish a leukemoid reaction from CML?
(Multiple Choice)
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Define leukoerythroblastosis, and name a condition in which this is seen.
(Essay)
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A 45-year-old male visited his physician for a routine checkup. His absolute neutrophil count was 8.5 × 109/L. Which of the following terms describes these results?
(Multiple Choice)
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A 45-year-old female who returned from a trip abroad had nausea and diarrhea, and then later, muscle aches, fever, and chills. She was admitted to a local hospital and was diagnosed with the parasitic disease, trichinosis. Which of the following is most consistent with this disease?
(Multiple Choice)
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