Exam 37: Hematology Procedures
Exam 1: Introduction32 Questions
Exam 2: Cellular Homeostasis40 Questions
Exam 3: Structure and Function of Hematopoietic Organs35 Questions
Exam 4: Hematopoiesis35 Questions
Exam 5: The Erythrocyte37 Questions
Exam 6: Hemoglobin40 Questions
Exam 7: Granulocytes and Monocytes30 Questions
Exam 8: Lymphocytes25 Questions
Exam 9: The Platelet18 Questions
Exam 10: The Complete Blood Count and Peripheral Blood Smear Evaluation40 Questions
Exam 11: Introduction to Anemia34 Questions
Exam 12: Anemias of Disordered Iron Metabolism and Heme Synthesis40 Questions
Exam 13: Hemoglobinopathies: Qualitative Defects33 Questions
Exam 14: Thalassemia32 Questions
Exam 15: Megaloblastic and Nonmegaloblastic Macrocytic Anemias33 Questions
Exam 16: Hypoproliferative Anemias31 Questions
Exam 17: Hemolytic Anemia: Membrane Defects36 Questions
Exam 18: Hemolytic Anemia: Enzyme Deficiencies36 Questions
Exam 19: Hemolytic Anemia: Immune Anemias32 Questions
Exam 20: Hemolytic Anemia: Nonimmune Defects30 Questions
Exam 21: Nonmalignant Disorders of Leukocytes: Granulocytes and Monocytes36 Questions
Exam 22: Nonmalignant Lymphocyte Disorders35 Questions
Exam 23: Introduction to Hematopoietic Neoplasms33 Questions
Exam 24: Myeloproliferative Neoplasms43 Questions
Exam 25: Myelodysplastic Syndromes34 Questions
Exam 26: Acute Myeloid Leukemias36 Questions
Exam 27: Precursor Lymphoid Neoplasms33 Questions
Exam 28: Mature Lymphoid Neoplasms41 Questions
Exam 29: Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation41 Questions
Exam 30: Morphologic Analysis of Body Fluids in the Hematology42 Questions
Exam 31: Primary Hemostasis32 Questions
Exam 32: Secondary Hemostasis and Fibrinolysis35 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis36 Questions
Exam 34: Disorders of Secondary Hemostasis31 Questions
Exam 35: Thrombophilia38 Questions
Exam 36: Hemostasis: Laboratory Testing and Instrumentation50 Questions
Exam 37: Hematology Procedures44 Questions
Exam 38: Bone Marrow Examination33 Questions
Exam 39: Automation in Hematology27 Questions
Exam 40: Flow Cytometry33 Questions
Exam 41: Chromosome Analysis of Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Disorders34 Questions
Exam 42: Molecular Analysis of Hematologic Diseases17 Questions
Exam 43: Quality Assessment in the Hematology Laboratory29 Questions
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How does the anticoagulant EDTA prevent coagulation from occurring?
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
C
The reference interval for hemoglobin varies with age. Which of the following age groups is associated with the highest hemoglobin level?
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
D
What is the anticoagulant in the most commonly utilized tube in hematology, and how does it prevent coagulation from taking place?
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
B
In the chloroacetate esterase procedure, which reagent component undergoes color change because of the enzyme's activity?
(Multiple Choice)
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List corrective measurements for each of the following:
a. A good monolayer on a blood smear in a patient with a low hematocrit
b. A good monolayer on a blood smear in a patient with a high hematocrit
c. Platelet satellitism
d. Many smudge cells on PB smear
(Essay)
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In phase contrast microscopy, the function of the phase ring is to:
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient has difficult veins, and a winged infusion set is used to collect the blood from a small vein in the patient's hand. After successfully filling all the SST tubes, the phlebotomist proceeds to fill the light blue-top tube but is unsuccessful. She changes tubes, thinking that it might be a tube with a lost vacuum, but there is still no blood flow. She inspects the entry site and notices some bruising around it that was not present before. Discuss possibilities of the unsuccessful draw, and explain how to correct them.
(Essay)
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The following erythrocyte data were obtained from an EDTA-anticoagulated sample: erythrocyte count = 3.92 × 1012/L, hemoglobin = 11.4 g/dL, and hematocrit = 34% (.34 L/L). Calculate the MCHC.
(Multiple Choice)
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The following erythrocyte indices were determined as part of a CBC: MCV 84 fL, MCH 24 pg, and MCHC 30 g/dL. What would you expect to observe on the Wright-stained peripheral blood smear?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which cytochemical stain is useful in differentiating CML from a leukemoid reaction?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following receptacles is most appropriate when disposing of used needles?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is the most appropriate test to differentiate hemoglobin S trait from hemoglobin S disease?
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Which cytochemical stain is useful in differentiating myeloblasts and lymphoblasts?
(Multiple Choice)
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The ESR determination on the MINI-VES instrument is based on:
(Multiple Choice)
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Two incubation sessions are needed in the Donath-Landsteiner test to detect:
(Multiple Choice)
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Increased levels of Heinz bodies are seen in which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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The following are preliminary screening test results. Name the suspected disorder associated with each finding, and explain how you would confirm each.
a. Positive hemolysis after both incubation periods
b. Normal sTFR levels
c. Many spherocytes noted on PB smear
d. Blasts noted on PB smear
(Essay)
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The microscopic examination of a Wright-stained blood smear revealed bright red erythrocytes and pale leukocyte nuclei. What is the best explanation for this appearance?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient is about to begin a regimen of chemotherapy, and his attending physician has ordered a battery of lab tests including comprehensive chemistry metabolic panel, complete blood count, coagulation studies, amylase and lipase, hemoglobin A1C, lipid panel, thyroid panel, PSA, rubella IgG, HIV, and syphilis. Five tiger-top tubes, 2 light blue-top tubes, and 2 lavender-top tubes are needed. Correlate each test to the appropriate tube and indicate the correct order of draw for the tubes.
(Essay)
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The 18-gauge needles used to collect donor blood for transfusion have a larger bore than do standard blood collection needles. What is the advantage of this needle?
(Multiple Choice)
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