Exam 40: Flow Cytometry
Exam 1: Introduction32 Questions
Exam 2: Cellular Homeostasis40 Questions
Exam 3: Structure and Function of Hematopoietic Organs35 Questions
Exam 4: Hematopoiesis35 Questions
Exam 5: The Erythrocyte37 Questions
Exam 6: Hemoglobin40 Questions
Exam 7: Granulocytes and Monocytes30 Questions
Exam 8: Lymphocytes25 Questions
Exam 9: The Platelet18 Questions
Exam 10: The Complete Blood Count and Peripheral Blood Smear Evaluation40 Questions
Exam 11: Introduction to Anemia34 Questions
Exam 12: Anemias of Disordered Iron Metabolism and Heme Synthesis40 Questions
Exam 13: Hemoglobinopathies: Qualitative Defects33 Questions
Exam 14: Thalassemia32 Questions
Exam 15: Megaloblastic and Nonmegaloblastic Macrocytic Anemias33 Questions
Exam 16: Hypoproliferative Anemias31 Questions
Exam 17: Hemolytic Anemia: Membrane Defects36 Questions
Exam 18: Hemolytic Anemia: Enzyme Deficiencies36 Questions
Exam 19: Hemolytic Anemia: Immune Anemias32 Questions
Exam 20: Hemolytic Anemia: Nonimmune Defects30 Questions
Exam 21: Nonmalignant Disorders of Leukocytes: Granulocytes and Monocytes36 Questions
Exam 22: Nonmalignant Lymphocyte Disorders35 Questions
Exam 23: Introduction to Hematopoietic Neoplasms33 Questions
Exam 24: Myeloproliferative Neoplasms43 Questions
Exam 25: Myelodysplastic Syndromes34 Questions
Exam 26: Acute Myeloid Leukemias36 Questions
Exam 27: Precursor Lymphoid Neoplasms33 Questions
Exam 28: Mature Lymphoid Neoplasms41 Questions
Exam 29: Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation41 Questions
Exam 30: Morphologic Analysis of Body Fluids in the Hematology42 Questions
Exam 31: Primary Hemostasis32 Questions
Exam 32: Secondary Hemostasis and Fibrinolysis35 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis36 Questions
Exam 34: Disorders of Secondary Hemostasis31 Questions
Exam 35: Thrombophilia38 Questions
Exam 36: Hemostasis: Laboratory Testing and Instrumentation50 Questions
Exam 37: Hematology Procedures44 Questions
Exam 38: Bone Marrow Examination33 Questions
Exam 39: Automation in Hematology27 Questions
Exam 40: Flow Cytometry33 Questions
Exam 41: Chromosome Analysis of Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Disorders34 Questions
Exam 42: Molecular Analysis of Hematologic Diseases17 Questions
Exam 43: Quality Assessment in the Hematology Laboratory29 Questions
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The flow cytometer contains a flow chamber that has two columns of fluid-sample and sheath-maintained at different pressure. Which of the following statements about the flow chamber is correct?
(Multiple Choice)
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The fluorescent dye employed by hematology analyzers to count reticulocytes binds to:
(Multiple Choice)
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Cells can be separated during data analysis by gating. This process of isolating cells can be based on what properties?
(Multiple Choice)
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In diagnosing PNH, which of the following assays is most sensitive to its detection?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which two CD markers are helpful in differentially identifying CLL from hairy cell leukemia?
(Multiple Choice)
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Of the following, which is not an appropriate specimen for flow cytometry?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is(are) the clinical application(s) of flow cytometry?
(Multiple Choice)
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The percentage of CD4 positive lymphocytes is determined by flow cytometry using staining with fluorescent-tagged antibodies against CD3 and CD4 followed by whole blood RBC lysis. What calculations does the dual platform use to determine the absolute number of CD4 positive cells?
(Multiple Choice)
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The gold standard for the diagnosis of AML is based on what information?
(Multiple Choice)
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An HIV-positive patient has his blood drawn to get his CD4 count. His results are as follows: WBC count: 2.0 × 109/L with 15% lymphocytes. CD4 positive cells are 10% of the total lymphocyte count. What is this patient's absolute CD4 count, and what does this mean?
(Multiple Choice)
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A single group of cells possessing identical aberrant phenotypes is defined as:
(Multiple Choice)
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A blood sample from a patient suspected of having ALL is received in the flow lab for immunophenotyping. The analysis is performed, and standard B-cell markers are present, but the patient is also CD33-positive. What is the most likely reason for this occurrence?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is used to determine the relationship between the content of tumor cells and normal dividing cells?
(Multiple Choice)
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