Exam 37: Hematology Procedures
Exam 1: Introduction30 Questions
Exam 2: Cellular Homeostasis40 Questions
Exam 3: Structure and Function of Hematopoietic Organs35 Questions
Exam 4: Hematopoiesis35 Questions
Exam 5: The Erythrocyte37 Questions
Exam 6: Hemoglobin40 Questions
Exam 7: Granulocytes and Monocytes30 Questions
Exam 8: Lymphocytes25 Questions
Exam 9: The Platelet16 Questions
Exam 10: The Complete Blood Count and Peripheral Blood Smear Evaluation35 Questions
Exam 11: Introduction to Anemia35 Questions
Exam 12: Anemias of Disordered Iron Metabolism and Heme Synthesis36 Questions
Exam 13: Hemoglobinopathies: Qualitative Defects33 Questions
Exam 14: Thalassemia32 Questions
Exam 15: Megaloblastic and Nonmegaloblastic Macrocytic Anemias34 Questions
Exam 16: Hypoproliferative Anemias32 Questions
Exam 17: Hemolytic Anemia: Membrane Defects36 Questions
Exam 18: Hemolytic Anemia: Enzyme Deficiencies36 Questions
Exam 19: Hemolytic Anemia: Immune Anemias30 Questions
Exam 20: Hemolytic Anemia: Nonimmune Defects30 Questions
Exam 21: Nonmalignant Disorders of Leukocytes: Granulocytes and Monocytes35 Questions
Exam 22: Nonmalignant Lymphocyte Disorders32 Questions
Exam 23: Introduction to Hematopoietic Neoplasms34 Questions
Exam 24: Myeloproliferative Neoplasms44 Questions
Exam 25: Myelodysplastic Syndromes34 Questions
Exam 26: Acute Myeloid Leukemias35 Questions
Exam 27: Precursor Lymphoid Neoplasms34 Questions
Exam 28: Mature Lymphoid Neoplasms39 Questions
Exam 29: Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation41 Questions
Exam 30: Morphologic Analysis of Body Fluids in the Hematology Laboratory39 Questions
Exam 31: Primary Hemostasis35 Questions
Exam 32: Secondary Hemostasis and Fibrinolysis33 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis35 Questions
Exam 34: Disorders of Secondary Hemostasis34 Questions
Exam 35: Thrombophilia34 Questions
Exam 36: Hemostasis: Laboratory Testing and Instrumentation41 Questions
Exam 37: Hematology Procedures46 Questions
Exam 38: Bone Marrow Examination34 Questions
Exam 39: Automation in Hematology38 Questions
Exam 40: Flow Cytometry34 Questions
Exam 41: Chromosome Analysis of Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Disorders35 Questions
Exam 42: Molecular Analysis of Hematologic Diseases18 Questions
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All of the following are needed on a phlebotomist's supply tray to perform a venipuncture except:
(Multiple Choice)
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The microscopic examination of a Wright-stained blood smear revealed bright red erythrocytes and pale leukocyte nuclei.What is the best explanation for this appearance?
(Multiple Choice)
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Name the cytochemical stains that are typically used in the workup of the following and how they are used to differentiate these conditions:
a.AML-myelomonocytic
b.APL
c.ALL
d.AML-Monoblastic
e.AML-Erythroid
(Essay)
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A laboratory professional is reviewing differentials and notices that the last few smears appear blue.What can be done to correct this?
(Multiple Choice)
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In phase contrast microscopy,the function of the phase ring is to:
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient's osmotic fragility test results show beginning hemolysis at 0.40% NaCl and complete hemolysis at 0.20% NaCl.Increased numbers of which erythrocyte morphology are associated with these findings?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following receptacles is most appropriate when disposing of used needles?
(Multiple Choice)
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The following erythrocyte data were obtained from an EDTA-anticoagulated sample: erythrocyte count = 3.92 × 10₁₂ /L,hemoglobin = 11.4 g/dL,and hematocrit = 34 % (.34 L/L).Calculate the MCHC.
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the anticoagulant in the most commonly utilized tube in hematology,and how does it prevent coagulation from taking place?
(Multiple Choice)
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An instrument printout reports a WBC count of 18 × 10⁹/L.The technologist notes 44 nucleated red blood cells.What is the corrected WBC count?
(Multiple Choice)
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In the chloroacetate esterase procedure,which reagent component undergoes color change because of the enzyme's activity?
(Multiple Choice)
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A clinical laboratory professional performs a manual reticulocyte count using the Miller disk and observes 83 reticulocytes (square A)in 214 erythrocytes (square B).Which of the following conditions is associated with this reticulocyte count?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which laboratory test is useful in the differential diagnosis of polycythemia?
(Multiple Choice)
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A clinical laboratory professional observes numerous smudge cells on a Wright-stained blood smear and experiences difficulty performing the 100-cell differential.What should be done to obtain an accurate differential?
(Multiple Choice)
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Brilliant green is used as the stain of choice for Heinz body preparation because of:
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient had the following results: RBC 2.45 × 10¹²/L MCV 90 fL
Hb 7.5 g/dL MCH 31 pg
Hct 22.0 % MCHC 34 g/dL
DAT negative
Haptoglobin 10 mg/dL
(Reference range: 35-164 for males and 40-175 for females)
Which is the most appropriate reflex test?
(Multiple Choice)
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An instrument printout reports a platelet count of 85 × 10⁹/L.The technologist reviewing the peripheral blood smears notices aggregates of platelets around many of the neutrophils.What is the best way to correct this problem?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient is about to begin a regimen of chemotherapy,and his attending has ordered a battery of lab tests including comprehensive chemistry metabolic panel,complete blood count,coagulation studies,amylase and lipase,hemoglobin A1C,lipid panel,thyroid panel,PSA,rubella IgG,HIV,and syphilis.Five tiger-top tubes,2 light blue-top tubes,and 2 lavender-top tubes are needed.Correlate each test to the appropriate tube,and indicate the correct order of draw for the tubes.
(Essay)
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