Exam 37: Hematology Procedures
Exam 1: Introduction30 Questions
Exam 2: Cellular Homeostasis40 Questions
Exam 3: Structure and Function of Hematopoietic Organs35 Questions
Exam 4: Hematopoiesis35 Questions
Exam 5: The Erythrocyte37 Questions
Exam 6: Hemoglobin40 Questions
Exam 7: Granulocytes and Monocytes30 Questions
Exam 8: Lymphocytes25 Questions
Exam 9: The Platelet16 Questions
Exam 10: The Complete Blood Count and Peripheral Blood Smear Evaluation35 Questions
Exam 11: Introduction to Anemia35 Questions
Exam 12: Anemias of Disordered Iron Metabolism and Heme Synthesis36 Questions
Exam 13: Hemoglobinopathies: Qualitative Defects33 Questions
Exam 14: Thalassemia32 Questions
Exam 15: Megaloblastic and Nonmegaloblastic Macrocytic Anemias34 Questions
Exam 16: Hypoproliferative Anemias32 Questions
Exam 17: Hemolytic Anemia: Membrane Defects36 Questions
Exam 18: Hemolytic Anemia: Enzyme Deficiencies36 Questions
Exam 19: Hemolytic Anemia: Immune Anemias30 Questions
Exam 20: Hemolytic Anemia: Nonimmune Defects30 Questions
Exam 21: Nonmalignant Disorders of Leukocytes: Granulocytes and Monocytes35 Questions
Exam 22: Nonmalignant Lymphocyte Disorders32 Questions
Exam 23: Introduction to Hematopoietic Neoplasms34 Questions
Exam 24: Myeloproliferative Neoplasms44 Questions
Exam 25: Myelodysplastic Syndromes34 Questions
Exam 26: Acute Myeloid Leukemias35 Questions
Exam 27: Precursor Lymphoid Neoplasms34 Questions
Exam 28: Mature Lymphoid Neoplasms39 Questions
Exam 29: Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation41 Questions
Exam 30: Morphologic Analysis of Body Fluids in the Hematology Laboratory39 Questions
Exam 31: Primary Hemostasis35 Questions
Exam 32: Secondary Hemostasis and Fibrinolysis33 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis35 Questions
Exam 34: Disorders of Secondary Hemostasis34 Questions
Exam 35: Thrombophilia34 Questions
Exam 36: Hemostasis: Laboratory Testing and Instrumentation41 Questions
Exam 37: Hematology Procedures46 Questions
Exam 38: Bone Marrow Examination34 Questions
Exam 39: Automation in Hematology38 Questions
Exam 40: Flow Cytometry34 Questions
Exam 41: Chromosome Analysis of Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Disorders35 Questions
Exam 42: Molecular Analysis of Hematologic Diseases18 Questions
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Proper technique for the capillary puncture includes:
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
A
An elevated potassium in a hemolyzed specimen is classified as:
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
A
What is the screening test of choice in the workup of PNH?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
D
List corrective measurements for each of the following:
a.A good monolayer on a blood smear in a patient with a low hematocrit
b.A good monolayer on a blood smear in a patient with a high hematocrit
c.Platelet satellitism
d.Many smudge cells on PB smear
(Essay)
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The following erythrocyte indices were determined as part of a CBC: MCV 84 fL,MCH 24 pg,and MCHC 30 g/dL.What would you expect to observe on the Wright-stained peripheral blood smear?
(Multiple Choice)
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The following are preliminary screening test results.Name the suspected disorder associated with each finding,and explain how you would confirm each.
a.Positive sugar-water test
b.Positive hemolysis after both incubation periods
c.Normal sTFR levels
d.Many spherocytes noted on PB smear
e.Blasts noted on PB smear
(Essay)
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Increased levels of Heinz bodies are seen in which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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An instrument printout reports a WBC count of 12 × 10⁹/L.The technologist reviews the peripheral blood smear and counts 45 nucleated RBCs.What is the best course of action regarding these findings?
(Multiple Choice)
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The reference interval for hemoglobin varies with age.Which of the following age groups is associated with the highest hemoglobin level?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is the most appropriate test to differentiate hemoglobin S trait from hemoglobin S disease?
(Multiple Choice)
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Given an RBC count of 3.25 × 10¹²/L,a hemoglobin of 9.0 g/dL,and a hematocrit of 25%,how will the red cells appear under PB smear examination?
(Multiple Choice)
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A CBC is performed on a polycythemic patient.What must the laboratician do to ensure that this specimen has an optimal blood smear?
(Multiple Choice)
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A sickle solubility test is requested STAT on a 45-year-old patient who is to have surgery very soon.The technologist receives the sample and immediately takes out the reagent from the refrigerator and performs the test.It comes back positive.The surgery is postponed until hemoglobin electrophoresis is performed,and it shows a normal distribution of adult hemoglobins.What is the most likely reason for the discrepant result?
(Multiple Choice)
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Acid is used in the quantification of hemoglobin F laboratory test because:
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient has difficult veins,and a winged infusion set is used to collect the blood from a small vein in the patient's hand.After successfully filling all the SST tubes,the phlebotomist proceeds to fill the light blue-top tube but is unsuccessful.She changes tubes,thinking that it might be a tube with a lost vacuum,but there is still no blood flow.She inspects the entry site and notices some bruising around it that was not present before.Discuss possibilities of the unsuccessful draw,and explain how to correct them.
(Essay)
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The acid elution test for hemoglobin F was performed on a patient sample,and examination of the slide revealed an uneven distribution of hemoglobin F within the erythrocytes.Control slides were acceptable.Which of the following is associated with this observation?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which cytochemical stain is useful in differentiating myeloblasts and lymphoblasts?
(Multiple Choice)
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How does the anticoagulant EDTA prevent coagulation from occurring?
(Multiple Choice)
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A panel of cytochemical stains is performed to determine a patient's subtype of AML.Myeloperoxidase and Sudan Black B are positive.Specific esterase is positive and nonspecific esterase o is negative.Based on this information,what lineage is implicated as the chosen subtype of AML?
(Multiple Choice)
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