Question 1

Which analyte is the best indicator of the overall picture of the immune system in an HIV-positive patient?

Accepted Answer

A) Absolute CD4 count 
B) Relative lymphocyte count 
C) WBC count 
D) Relative CD4 count 
A) Absolute CD4 count 
B) Relative lymphocyte count 
C) WBC count 
D) Relative CD4 count A

Question 2

What is one advantage to using monoclonal antibodies rather than polyclonal antibodies in immunophenotyping?

Accepted Answer

A) They are commercially available. 
B) The antigen can be recognized even if some parts of it are abnormal. 
C) They have high purity and reproducibility. 
D) They can be directly attached to fluorochromes. 
A) They are commercially available. 
B) The antigen can be recognized even if some parts of it are abnormal. 
C) They have high purity and reproducibility. 
D) They can be directly attached to fluorochromes. C

Question 3

The percentage of CD4 positive lymphocytes is determined by flow cytometry using staining with fluorescent-tagged antibodies against CD3 and CD4 followed by whole blood RBC lysis.What calculations does the dual platform use to determine the absolute number of CD4 positive cells?

Accepted Answer

A) Absolute CD4 count × 100 
B) Number of CD4+ cells × 100 
C) Absolute lymphocyte count × % CD4+ lymphocytes/100 
D) % lymphocytes × % CD4+ lymphocytes/100 
A) Absolute CD4 count × 100 
B) Number of CD4+ cells × 100 
C) Absolute lymphocyte count × % CD4+ lymphocytes/100 
D) % lymphocytes × % CD4+ lymphocytes/100 C

Question 4

A blood sample from a patient suspected of having ALL is received in the flow lab for immunophenotyping.The analysis is performed,and standard B-cell markers are present,but the patient is also CD33-positive.What is the most likely reason for this occurrence?

Accepted Answer

A) The patient has a poorer prognosis than standard ALL. 
B) The patient is responding to the chemotherapy. 
C) The patient has ALL with aberrant myeloid cellular antigens. 
D) It cannot be determined by the information given. 
A) The patient has a poorer prognosis than standard ALL. 
B) The patient is responding to the chemotherapy. 
C) The patient has ALL with aberrant myeloid cellular antigens. 
D) It cannot be determined by the information given.

Question 5

The DNA content of a patient's tumor cells is reported as 2.0,and the DNA content of diploid cells is 1.0.What is the DNA index?

Accepted Answer

A) 2.0 
B) 3.0 
C) 1.0 
D) 0.5 
A) 2.0 
B) 3.0 
C) 1.0 
D) 0.5

Question 6

Which of the following is not the component(s)of a flow cytometer?

Accepted Answer

A) Photomultiplier tubes 
B) Sheath fluid 
C) Flow chamber 
D) Hemoglobin chamber 
A) Photomultiplier tubes 
B) Sheath fluid 
C) Flow chamber 
D) Hemoglobin chamber

Question 7

The expression of several antigens from two different lineages complicates the categorizing the diagnosis as AML or ALL.This biphenotypic expression toward more than one lineage restricts the use of immunophenotyping.In differentiating AML and ALL,staining with which of the following cytochemical stains indicates AML?

Accepted Answer

A) PAS 
B) Giemsa 
C) Myeloperoxidase 
D) Thiazole orange 
A) PAS 
B) Giemsa 
C) Myeloperoxidase 
D) Thiazole orange

Question 8

A flow instrument printout reveals a single scatter population of small size and low complexity.Ninety percent of the cells in that population have CD2 on their surface.What is the most probable lineage of the unknown population?

Accepted Answer

A) NK cells 
B) T cells 
C) B cells 
D) Monocytes 
A) NK cells 
B) T cells 
C) B cells 
D) Monocytes

Question 9

Neoplasms are made up of a population of identical cells or a clone of cells.When identified,clone can lead to the discovery of a lymphoid malignancy or other lymphoproliferative disorder.Clonality be detected by:

Accepted Answer

A) The uniform expression of one immunoglobulin light chain 
B) A mixture of cells with either kappa or lambda light chains 
C) A surface immunoglobulin detection 
D) The bright intensity of all monoclonal markers 
A) The uniform expression of one immunoglobulin light chain 
B) A mixture of cells with either kappa or lambda light chains 
C) A surface immunoglobulin detection 
D) The bright intensity of all monoclonal markers

Question 10

An unknown cell resembling a hematogone has CD19 and CD20 antigens.What is the unknown cell's lineage?

Accepted Answer

A) Myeloid 
B) Monocytic 
C) Lymphoid 
D) Erythroid 
A) Myeloid 
B) Monocytic 
C) Lymphoid 
D) Erythroid

Question 11

A single group of cells possessing identical aberrant phenotypes is defined as:

Accepted Answer

A) Monoclonal 
B) Clonal 
C) Tumorigenic 
D) Contour gated 
A) Monoclonal 
B) Clonal 
C) Tumorigenic 
D) Contour gated

Question 12

Cells can be separated during data analysis by gating.This process of isolating cells can be based on what properties?

Accepted Answer

A) Cell size and granularity 
B) Cell density 
C) Shape of the nucleus 
D) Color of the cytoplasm 
A) Cell size and granularity 
B) Cell density 
C) Shape of the nucleus 
D) Color of the cytoplasm

Question 13

Which markers are useful in immunophenotyping for leukemia/lymphoma of T cell-lineage?

Accepted Answer

A) CD103,CD61,and CD59 
B) CD38,CD59,and CD13 
C) CD2,CD3,CD4,CD5,CD7,and CD8 
D) CD55,CD25,and kappa 
A) CD103,CD61,and CD59 
B) CD38,CD59,and CD13 
C) CD2,CD3,CD4,CD5,CD7,and CD8 
D) CD55,CD25,and kappa

Question 14

Which of the following is(are)the clinical application(s)of flow cytometry?

Accepted Answer

A) Assessment of total body iron 
B) Immunophenotyping 
C) DNA amplification 
D) Cytogenetic analysis 
A) Assessment of total body iron 
B) Immunophenotyping 
C) DNA amplification 
D) Cytogenetic analysis

Question 15

In diagnosing PNH,which of the following assays is most sensitive to its detection?

Accepted Answer

A) GPI anchor phenotype 
B) Ham test 
C) Sucrose lysis test 
D) Osmotic fragility test 
A) GPI anchor phenotype 
B) Ham test 
C) Sucrose lysis test 
D) Osmotic fragility test

Question 16

Name at least two pitfalls in immunophenotyping mature lymphoid malignancies,and explain how you would correct this.

Accepted Answer

Some malignant B- cell lymphoproliferati

Question 17

Choose the correct statement regarding the IRF from the following choices:

Accepted Answer

A) It is directly proportional to the degree of bone marrow turnover. 
B) It is indirectly proportional to the average age of the reticulocytes. 
C) It cannot be used to monitor erythropoietin therapy. 
D) It cannot be used to monitor bone marrow recovery after transplant. 
A) It is directly proportional to the degree of bone marrow turnover. 
B) It is indirectly proportional to the average age of the reticulocytes. 
C) It cannot be used to monitor erythropoietin therapy. 
D) It cannot be used to monitor bone marrow recovery after transplant.

Question 18

An HIV-positive patient has his blood drawn to get his CD4 count.His results are as follows: WBC count: 2.0 × 10⁹/L with 15% lymphocytes.CD4 positive cells are 10% of the total lymphocyte count.What is this patient's absolute CD4 count,and what does this mean?

Accepted Answer

A) The patient's absolute CD4 count is 300/mcL,and he has AIDS. 
B) The patient's absolute CD4 count is 180/mcL,and he has AIDS. 
C) The patient's absolute CD4 count is 300/mcL,and he does not have AIDS. 
D) The patient's absolute CD4 count is 120/mcL,and he does have AIDS. 
A) The patient's absolute CD4 count is 300/mcL,and he has AIDS. 
B) The patient's absolute CD4 count is 180/mcL,and he has AIDS. 
C) The patient's absolute CD4 count is 300/mcL,and he does not have AIDS. 
D) The patient's absolute CD4 count is 120/mcL,and he does have AIDS.

Question 19

Explain why flow cytometry is of limited use in identifying AML.

Accepted Answer

The WHO classification of AML employs cy

Question 20

CD34 enumeration is useful in bone marrow and peripheral blood stem cell transplantation.For this enumeration,the EWGCCA recommendations include proper technique and interpretation of the flow cytometry analysis.Which of the following standards was recommended for proper acquisition of events?

Accepted Answer

A) Include platelets and unlysed red blood cells and debris 
B) Include only CD34 dim staining populations 
C) Use bright fluorochrome conjugates of class II or III monoclonal antibodies that detect all glycoforms of CD34 
D) Acquire only 10 CD34 positive cells 
A) Include platelets and unlysed red blood cells and debris 
B) Include only CD34 dim staining populations 
C) Use bright fluorochrome conjugates of class II or III monoclonal antibodies that detect all glycoforms of CD34 
D) Acquire only 10 CD34 positive cells

Exam 40: Flow Cytometry

Which analyte is the best indicator of the overall picture of the immune system in an HIV-positive patient?

What is one advantage to using monoclonal antibodies rather than polyclonal antibodies in immunophenotyping?

The percentage of CD4 positive lymphocytes is determined by flow cytometry using staining with fluorescent-tagged antibodies against CD3 and CD4 followed by whole blood RBC lysis.What calculations does the dual platform use to determine the absolute number of CD4 positive cells?

A blood sample from a patient suspected of having ALL is received in the flow lab for immunophenotyping.The analysis is performed,and standard B-cell markers are present,but the patient is also CD33-positive.What is the most likely reason for this occurrence?

The DNA content of a patient's tumor cells is reported as 2.0,and the DNA content of diploid cells is 1.0.What is the DNA index?

Which of the following is not the component(s)of a flow cytometer?

A flow instrument printout reveals a single scatter population of small size and low complexity.Ninety percent of the cells in that population have CD2 on their surface.What is the most probable lineage of the unknown population?

Neoplasms are made up of a population of identical cells or a clone of cells.When identified,clone can lead to the discovery of a lymphoid malignancy or other lymphoproliferative disorder.Clonality be detected by:

An unknown cell resembling a hematogone has CD19 and CD20 antigens.What is the unknown cell's lineage?

A single group of cells possessing identical aberrant phenotypes is defined as:

Cells can be separated during data analysis by gating.This process of isolating cells can be based on what properties?

Which markers are useful in immunophenotyping for leukemia/lymphoma of T cell-lineage?

Which of the following is(are)the clinical application(s)of flow cytometry?

In diagnosing PNH,which of the following assays is most sensitive to its detection?

Name at least two pitfalls in immunophenotyping mature lymphoid malignancies,and explain how you would correct this.

Choose the correct statement regarding the IRF from the following choices:

An HIV-positive patient has his blood drawn to get his CD4 count.His results are as follows: WBC count: 2.0 × 10⁹/L with 15% lymphocytes.CD4 positive cells are 10% of the total lymphocyte count.What is this patient's absolute CD4 count,and what does this mean?

Explain why flow cytometry is of limited use in identifying AML.

CD34 enumeration is useful in bone marrow and peripheral blood stem cell transplantation.For this enumeration,the EWGCCA recommendations include proper technique and interpretation of the flow cytometry analysis.Which of the following standards was recommended for proper acquisition of events?

Introduction

Cellular Homeostasis

Structure and Function of Hematopoietic Organs

Hematopoiesis

The Erythrocyte

Hemoglobin

Granulocytes and Monocytes

Lymphocytes

The Platelet

The Complete Blood Count and Peripheral Blood Smear Evaluation

Introduction to Anemia

Anemias of Disordered Iron Metabolism and Heme Synthesis

Hemoglobinopathies: Qualitative Defects

Thalassemia

Megaloblastic and Nonmegaloblastic Macrocytic Anemias

Hypoproliferative Anemias

Hemolytic Anemia: Membrane Defects

Hemolytic Anemia: Enzyme Deficiencies

Hemolytic Anemia: Immune Anemias

Hemolytic Anemia: Nonimmune Defects

Nonmalignant Disorders of Leukocytes: Granulocytes and Monocytes

Nonmalignant Lymphocyte Disorders

Introduction to Hematopoietic Neoplasms

Myeloproliferative Neoplasms

Myelodysplastic Syndromes

Acute Myeloid Leukemias

Precursor Lymphoid Neoplasms

Mature Lymphoid Neoplasms

Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation

Morphologic Analysis of Body Fluids in the Hematology Laboratory

Primary Hemostasis

Secondary Hemostasis and Fibrinolysis

Disorders of Primary Hemostasis

Disorders of Secondary Hemostasis

Thrombophilia

Hemostasis: Laboratory Testing and Instrumentation

Hematology Procedures

Bone Marrow Examination

Automation in Hematology

Chromosome Analysis of Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Disorders

Molecular Analysis of Hematologic Diseases

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