Exam 24: Pulmonary Infections
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care30 Questions
Exam 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care22 Questions
Exam 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping49 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control34 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice41 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care88 Questions
Exam 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care21 Questions
Exam 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research10 Questions
Exam 9: The Respiratory System129 Questions
Exam 10: The Cardiovascular System68 Questions
Exam 11: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 12: Gas Exchange and Transport88 Questions
Exam 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes94 Questions
Exam 14: Acid-Base Balance100 Questions
Exam 15: Regulation of Breathing50 Questions
Exam 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient100 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data38 Questions
Exam 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram35 Questions
Exam 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange115 Questions
Exam 20: Pulmonary Function Testing70 Questions
Exam 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging47 Questions
Exam 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist25 Questions
Exam 23: Nutrition Assessment46 Questions
Exam 24: Pulmonary Infections56 Questions
Exam 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases59 Questions
Exam 26: Interstitial Lung Disease45 Questions
Exam 27: Pleural Diseases42 Questions
Exam 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease57 Questions
Exam 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome30 Questions
Exam 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning21 Questions
Exam 31: Lung Cancer28 Questions
Exam 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall29 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Sleep30 Questions
Exam 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders70 Questions
Exam 35: Airway Pharmacology67 Questions
Exam 36: Airway Management117 Questions
Exam 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support70 Questions
Exam 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy109 Questions
Exam 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy116 Questions
Exam 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases78 Questions
Exam 41: Medical Gas Therapy93 Questions
Exam 42: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act90 Questions
Exam 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support54 Questions
Exam 45: Mechanical Ventilators70 Questions
Exam 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support89 Questions
Exam 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction22 Questions
Exam 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support97 Questions
Exam 49: Noninvasive Ventilation51 Questions
Exam 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls25 Questions
Exam 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit60 Questions
Exam 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support62 Questions
Exam 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care34 Questions
Exam 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion20 Questions
Exam 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation64 Questions
Exam 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings130 Questions
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Which of the following organisms that cause pneumonia is most likely to result in a positive blood culture?
(Multiple Choice)
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What clinical finding should raise your suspicion that a patient has developed hospital-acquired pneumonia?
(Multiple Choice)
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What would be important to perform in order to obtain a good sputum sample that is to be used to detect the pathogen causing community-acquired pneumonia?
(Multiple Choice)
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In what percentage of patients with pneumonia has no microbial agent been isolated?
(Multiple Choice)
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A 45-year-old patient diagnosed with pneumonia has received appropriate antibiotic therapy. Radiographic resolution is most often seen within what time period?
(Multiple Choice)
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What type of lung infection is most commonly associated with cavitating lesions on the chest radiograph?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following represents an example of atypical community-acquired pneumonia?
(Multiple Choice)
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Your patient has community-acquired bacterial pneumonia. Which of the following symptoms are common with this type of pneumonia?
1) Cough with purulent sputum
2) Diarrhea
3) Low fever
4) Shaking chills
(Multiple Choice)
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An intubated, mechanically ventilated patient is suspected of developing nosocomial pneumonia. The pulmonologist decides to perform a bronchoscopy. Which bronchoscopy findings would be consistent with pneumonia?
1) Alveolar collapse
2) Distal purulent secretions
3) Persistent secretions surging from distal bronchi during exhalation
4) P/F ratio less than 50
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the drug of choice for the patient with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?
(Multiple Choice)
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What organism is associated with the highest mortality rate for patients with pneumonia?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following are common laboratory findings found in adults with suspected community-acquired pneumonia?
1) Acidemia
2) Proteinuria
3) Azotemia
4) Hyponatremia
(Multiple Choice)
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For a patient with pneumonia with coexisting cardiopulmonary disease, according to the ATS guidelines, what single antibiotic could be given as empiric treatment?
(Multiple Choice)
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What time line has been established to initiate antibiotic treatment in patients with pneumonia who are admitted to the hospital that will result in improved survival?
(Multiple Choice)
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What might be indicated by failure of the patient's temperature to normalize 4 or 5 days after the start of antibiotic therapy?
1) A closed-space infection
2) Drug fever
3) A missed pathogen
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following would interfere with the collection of a good sputum sample for Gram stain?
1) Contamination of the sample with oral secretions
2) Lack of productive cough
3) Prior antibiotic therapy
4) Rinsing with mouthwash prior to sputum collection
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following clinical findings is not associated with an increased risk of death in the patient with pneumonia?
(Multiple Choice)
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What percent of patients with community-acquired pneumonia have a parapneumonic pleural effusion?
(Multiple Choice)
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