Exam 42: Lung Expansion Therapy
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care30 Questions
Exam 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care22 Questions
Exam 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping49 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control34 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice41 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care88 Questions
Exam 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care21 Questions
Exam 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research10 Questions
Exam 9: The Respiratory System129 Questions
Exam 10: The Cardiovascular System68 Questions
Exam 11: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 12: Gas Exchange and Transport88 Questions
Exam 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes94 Questions
Exam 14: Acid-Base Balance100 Questions
Exam 15: Regulation of Breathing50 Questions
Exam 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient100 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data38 Questions
Exam 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram35 Questions
Exam 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange115 Questions
Exam 20: Pulmonary Function Testing70 Questions
Exam 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging47 Questions
Exam 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist25 Questions
Exam 23: Nutrition Assessment46 Questions
Exam 24: Pulmonary Infections56 Questions
Exam 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases59 Questions
Exam 26: Interstitial Lung Disease45 Questions
Exam 27: Pleural Diseases42 Questions
Exam 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease57 Questions
Exam 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome30 Questions
Exam 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning21 Questions
Exam 31: Lung Cancer28 Questions
Exam 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall29 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Sleep30 Questions
Exam 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders70 Questions
Exam 35: Airway Pharmacology67 Questions
Exam 36: Airway Management117 Questions
Exam 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support70 Questions
Exam 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy109 Questions
Exam 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy116 Questions
Exam 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases78 Questions
Exam 41: Medical Gas Therapy93 Questions
Exam 42: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act90 Questions
Exam 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support54 Questions
Exam 45: Mechanical Ventilators70 Questions
Exam 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support89 Questions
Exam 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction22 Questions
Exam 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support97 Questions
Exam 49: Noninvasive Ventilation51 Questions
Exam 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls25 Questions
Exam 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit60 Questions
Exam 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support62 Questions
Exam 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care34 Questions
Exam 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion20 Questions
Exam 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation64 Questions
Exam 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings130 Questions
Select questions type
In teaching a patient to perform the sustained maximal inspiration maneuver during incentive spirometry, what would you say?
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(84)
When adjusting the sensitivity control on an intermittent positive-pressure breathing device, which of the following parameters are you changing?
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(74)
An alert and cooperative 28-year-old woman with no prior history of lung disease underwent cesarean section 16 hr earlier. Her x-ray film currently is clear. Which of the following approaches to preventing atelectasis would you recommend for this patient?
(Multiple Choice)
4.7/5
(79)
For patients receiving incentive spirometry, what is the minimum number of sustained maximal inspirations (SMIs) per hour that you would recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(66)
Which of the following should be charted in the patient's medical record after completion of an intermittent positive-pressure breathing treatment?
1) Results of pretreatment and posttreatment assessment
2) Any side effects
3) Duration of therapeutic session
(Multiple Choice)
4.7/5
(73)
Which of the following are potential complications of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) therapy?
1) Barotrauma
2) Hyperventilation
3) Gastric distention
4) Hypercapnia
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(93)
Which of the following are appropriate volume goals for intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB) therapy?
1) 10 to 15 ml/kg ideal body weight
2) At least 30% of the inspiratory capacity (IC)
3) Pressure level as high as 30 to 35 cm H2O
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(93)
What is the major contributing factor in the development of postoperative atelectasis?
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(96)
Preliminary planning for intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB) should include which of the following?
1) Evaluating alternative approaches to the patient's problem
2) Setting specific, individual clinical goals or objectives
3) Conducting a baseline assessment of the patient
4) Taking a chest x-ray
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(77)
Which of the following positions is ideal for intermittent positive-pressure breathing therapy?
(Multiple Choice)
4.7/5
(75)
Which of the following are appropriate initial settings for intermittent positive-pressure breathing given to a new patient?
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(83)
Which of the following are essential components of a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) flow system?
1) Blended source of pressurized gas
2) Nonrebreathing circuit with reservoir bag
3) Low-pressure or disconnect alarm
4) Expiratory threshold resistor
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(71)
In terms of machine performance, what do large negative pressure swings early in inspiration typically indicate?
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(85)
When checking a patient's intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB) circuit before use, you notice that the device will not cycle off, even when you occlude the mouthpiece. What would be the most appropriate action in this case?
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(88)
During administration of a continuous positive airway pressure flow mask to a patient with atelectasis, you find it difficult to maintain the prescribed airway pressure. Which of the following is the most common explanation?
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(85)
Which of the following groups of patients is not at risk for developing postoperative atelectasis?
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(85)
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for using intermittent positive-pressure breathing?
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(86)
Which of the following are the hazards and complications of incentive spirometry?
1) Hyperventilation
2) Fatigue
3) Discomfort secondary to inadequate pain control
4) Barotrauma
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(69)
Which of the following are true about intermittent positive-pressure breathing?
1) During inspiration, pressure in the alveoli decreases.
2) The pressure gradients of normal breathing are reversed.
3) During inspiration, alveolar pressure may exceed pleural pressure.
4) Energy stored during inspiration causes a passive exhalation.
(Multiple Choice)
5.0/5
(82)
Which of the following machine performance characteristics should be monitored during intermittent positive-pressure breathing therapy?
1) Flow setting
2) Sensitivity
3) Humidity output
4) Peak pressure
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(74)
Showing 41 - 60 of 63
Filters
- Essay(0)
- Multiple Choice(0)
- Short Answer(0)
- True False(0)
- Matching(0)