Exam 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care30 Questions
Exam 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care22 Questions
Exam 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping49 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control34 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice41 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care88 Questions
Exam 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care21 Questions
Exam 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research10 Questions
Exam 9: The Respiratory System129 Questions
Exam 10: The Cardiovascular System68 Questions
Exam 11: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 12: Gas Exchange and Transport88 Questions
Exam 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes94 Questions
Exam 14: Acid-Base Balance100 Questions
Exam 15: Regulation of Breathing50 Questions
Exam 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient100 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data38 Questions
Exam 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram35 Questions
Exam 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange115 Questions
Exam 20: Pulmonary Function Testing70 Questions
Exam 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging47 Questions
Exam 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist25 Questions
Exam 23: Nutrition Assessment46 Questions
Exam 24: Pulmonary Infections56 Questions
Exam 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases59 Questions
Exam 26: Interstitial Lung Disease45 Questions
Exam 27: Pleural Diseases42 Questions
Exam 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease57 Questions
Exam 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome30 Questions
Exam 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning21 Questions
Exam 31: Lung Cancer28 Questions
Exam 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall29 Questions
Exam 33: Disorders of Sleep30 Questions
Exam 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders70 Questions
Exam 35: Airway Pharmacology67 Questions
Exam 36: Airway Management117 Questions
Exam 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support70 Questions
Exam 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy109 Questions
Exam 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy116 Questions
Exam 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases78 Questions
Exam 41: Medical Gas Therapy93 Questions
Exam 42: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act90 Questions
Exam 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support54 Questions
Exam 45: Mechanical Ventilators70 Questions
Exam 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support89 Questions
Exam 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction22 Questions
Exam 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support97 Questions
Exam 49: Noninvasive Ventilation51 Questions
Exam 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls25 Questions
Exam 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit60 Questions
Exam 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support62 Questions
Exam 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care34 Questions
Exam 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion20 Questions
Exam 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation64 Questions
Exam 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings130 Questions
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Compressed gas cylinders are manufactured from which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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To prevent this type of accident, all cylinders have high-23. In clinical practice, how is a positive identification made of the contents of a medical gas cylinder?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following devices would you select if the goal was to accurately meter the flow through a jet nebulizer?
(Multiple Choice)
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The gauge on a G cylinder of O2 reads 400 psig. Approximately how long would the contents of this cylinder last, until completely empty, at a flow of 5 L/min?
(Multiple Choice)
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Air for medical use in a hospital should be which of the following?
1) Particle-free
2) Oil-free
3) Dry
(Multiple Choice)
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The gauge on an E cylinder of O2 reads 800 psig. Approximately how long would the contents of this cylinder last, until completely empty, at a flow of 3 L/min?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following statements regarding O2 are true?
1) It is only slightly soluble in water.
2) It is odorless and transparent.
3) It is flammable.
4) It is heavier than air.
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the key difference between small compressed gas cylinders (sizes AA to E) and their larger counterparts (sizes F to K)?
(Multiple Choice)
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You are planning a patient transport that will take approximately 1 hr. The patient requires manual ventilation with 10 L/min of O2. What is the minimum number of full E cylinders you would take with you?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the indexed safety system for threaded high-pressure connections between large compressed gas cylinders and their attachments?
(Multiple Choice)
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What do the components of a liquid O2 bulk storage tank include?
1) Inner and outer steel shells, separated by a vacuum
2) Safety system that vents O2 if warming occurs
3) Vaporizer system that converts liquid O2 to gas
4) Pressure-reducing valves to lower pressure to 50 psig
(Multiple Choice)
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What cylinder factor is used to compute the duration of flow for a 244 cu/ft (H/K) O2 or air cylinder?
(Multiple Choice)
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What safety system is designed to prevent accidental interchanging among low-pressure (<200 psig) connectors such as those found on flowmeters and ventilators?
(Multiple Choice)
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Unlike CO2 or N2O, O2 cannot be stored as a liquid at room temperature but must be kept in special cryogenic containers. Why is this so?
(Multiple Choice)
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When minimal fluctuations in pressure and flow are critical factors, which of the following pressure-reducing valves would be the best choice?
(Multiple Choice)
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What cylinder factor is used to compute the duration of flow for a 22 cu/ft O2 or air E cylinder?
(Multiple Choice)
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One cu/ft of liquid O2 is the equivalent to approximately how many cu/ft of gaseous O2?
(Multiple Choice)
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Why are zone valves incorporated into a hospital's central gas piping systems?
1) To terminate O2 delivery to an area in case of fire
2) To allow selective maintenance without shutting the system down
3) To allow variable pressure reduction throughout the system
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following are advantages of using a flow restrictor to control the delivery of medical gases to a patient?
1) Preset metered flow
2) Low cost and simplicity
3) Gravity independence
4) Wide range of utility
(Multiple Choice)
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