Question 1

Which of the following enzymes are most commonly used for sequence-specific cleavage of DNA?

Accepted Answer

A)  EcoR1 
B)  BamH1 
C)  HindIII 
D)  All of the above 
E)  None of the above 
A)  EcoR1 
B)  BamH1 
C)  HindIII 
D)  All of the above 
E)  None of the above D

Question 2

Which of the following methods can amplify particular segments of target DNA a billion-fold?

Accepted Answer

A)  Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) 
B)  Southern blot 
C)  Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) 
D)  Western blot 
E)  None of the above 
A)  Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) 
B)  Southern blot 
C)  Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) 
D)  Western blot 
E)  None of the above C

Question 3

Which of the following are clinical applications of in situ hybridization to cells or tissues immobilized on glass slides?

Accepted Answer

A)  Determine the disease related location of foreign organisms 
B)  Detect and localize gene expression by targeting RNA transcripts 
C)  Detect point mutations such as the sickle cell anemia mutation 
D)  A and B 
E)  All of the above 
A)  Determine the disease related location of foreign organisms 
B)  Detect and localize gene expression by targeting RNA transcripts 
C)  Detect point mutations such as the sickle cell anemia mutation 
D)  A and B 
E)  All of the above D

Question 4

Which of the following hematopoietic cancer(s) have known oncogenes related to them?

Accepted Answer

A)  Chronic myelogenous leukemia 
B)  Acute lymphoblastic leukemia 
C)  Burkitt lymphoma 
D)  T-cell leukemia 
E)  All of the above 
A)  Chronic myelogenous leukemia 
B)  Acute lymphoblastic leukemia 
C)  Burkitt lymphoma 
D)  T-cell leukemia 
E)  All of the above

Question 5

Which of the following is the major disadvantage of RT-PCR?

Accepted Answer

A)  DNA is labile and therefore all DNA-based testing require meticulous care to avoid degradation. 
B)  Large sample size is required. 
C)  Not sensitive to low number of target sequences. 
D)  RNA is labile and therefore all RNA-based testing requires meticulous care to avoid degradation by RNases. 
E)  All of the above 
A)  DNA is labile and therefore all DNA-based testing require meticulous care to avoid degradation. 
B)  Large sample size is required. 
C)  Not sensitive to low number of target sequences. 
D)  RNA is labile and therefore all RNA-based testing requires meticulous care to avoid degradation by RNases. 
E)  All of the above

Question 6

Which of the following is/are clinical applications of PCR?

Accepted Answer

A)  Detect foreign nucleic acid characteristic of infectious diseases 
B)  Detect DNA that has a particular cancer-associated defect 
C)  Detect minimal residual disease 
D)  Detect clonal immunoglobulin or T-cell receptor gene rearrangement 
E)  All of the above 
A)  Detect foreign nucleic acid characteristic of infectious diseases 
B)  Detect DNA that has a particular cancer-associated defect 
C)  Detect minimal residual disease 
D)  Detect clonal immunoglobulin or T-cell receptor gene rearrangement 
E)  All of the above

Question 7

Which of the following specimen criteria is best for DNA analysis by the Southern blot method?

Accepted Answer

A)  A tissue fixed in ethanol within 2 hours of collection 
B)  A tissue that is frozen within 48 hours of collection 
C)  A blood sample that is 5 days old 
D)  A tissue fixed in formaldehyde within 1 hour of collection 
E)  None of the above 
A)  A tissue fixed in ethanol within 2 hours of collection 
B)  A tissue that is frozen within 48 hours of collection 
C)  A blood sample that is 5 days old 
D)  A tissue fixed in formaldehyde within 1 hour of collection 
E)  None of the above

Question 8

Intact DNA is usually well preserved in tissues that are frozen within what time after collection?

Accepted Answer

A)  1 hour 
B)  6 hours 
C)  12 hours 
D)  24 hours 
E)  48 hours 
A)  1 hour 
B)  6 hours 
C)  12 hours 
D)  24 hours 
E)  48 hours

Question 9

In complementary nucleotide pairing, an adenine can bind only with __________________ and guanine can bind only with _________.

Accepted Answer

A)  Cytosine, thymine 
B)  Thymine, cytosine 
C)  Guanine, adenine 
D)  Glucine, thymine 
A)  Cytosine, thymine 
B)  Thymine, cytosine 
C)  Guanine, adenine 
D)  Glucine, thymine

Question 10

Which statement is true regarding genomic DNA extraction from blood?

Accepted Answer

A)  Only the cell membranes are represented. 
B)  Only the cytoplasm is represented. 
C)  Only the mature red cells are represented. 
D)  Only the nucleated cell fraction is represented. 
A)  Only the cell membranes are represented. 
B)  Only the cytoplasm is represented. 
C)  Only the mature red cells are represented. 
D)  Only the nucleated cell fraction is represented.

Question 11

Which of the following is the major disadvantage of PCR?

Accepted Answer

A)  Extremely sensitive to low numbers of target sequences 
B)  Extreme precautions are required to avoid contamination of samples or reagents by extraneous DNA 
C)  Relatively slow and expensive 
D)  Requires a large sample size 
E)  All of the above 
A)  Extremely sensitive to low numbers of target sequences 
B)  Extreme precautions are required to avoid contamination of samples or reagents by extraneous DNA 
C)  Relatively slow and expensive 
D)  Requires a large sample size 
E)  All of the above

Question 12

What is the major advantage of fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)?

Accepted Answer

A)  Permits visualization of target DNA in the context of karyotypic visualization of metaphase chromosomes 
B)  Requires live cells capable of entering mitosis to interpret results in interphase chromosomes 
C)  Visualization of fluorochrome requires input light source 
D)  All of the above 
E)  None of the above 
A)  Permits visualization of target DNA in the context of karyotypic visualization of metaphase chromosomes 
B)  Requires live cells capable of entering mitosis to interpret results in interphase chromosomes 
C)  Visualization of fluorochrome requires input light source 
D)  All of the above 
E)  None of the above

Question 13

Which of the following is/are true regarding "probes"?

Accepted Answer

A)  Help to identify a specific RNA nucleotide sequence. 
B)  Help to identify a specific DNA nucleotide sequence. 
C)  Follow the rules of complementary nucleotide pairing. 
D)  All of the above. 
A)  Help to identify a specific RNA nucleotide sequence. 
B)  Help to identify a specific DNA nucleotide sequence. 
C)  Follow the rules of complementary nucleotide pairing. 
D)  All of the above.

Question 14

Which anticoagulant is preferred for diagnostic procedures that analyze DNA since it does not inhibit the action of restriction endonucleases?

Accepted Answer

A)  Heparin 
B)  Sodium fluoride (NAFl) 
C)  Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDT
A)  
D)  Calcium oxalate 
E)  None of the above 
A)  Heparin 
B)  Sodium fluoride (NAFl) 
C)  Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDT
A)  
D)  Calcium oxalate 
E)  None of the above

Question 15

Human DNA is packaged into how many chromosomes?

Accepted Answer

A)  46 
B)  23 
C)  26 
D)  50 
A)  46 
B)  23 
C)  26 
D)  50

Question 16

Which of the following is/are clinical application(s) of RT-PCR?

Accepted Answer

A)  Determine expression of selected genes by targeting their corresponding RNA transcripts 
B)  Detect certain disease-specific chromosomal translocations where RNA is transcribed across the translocation breakpoint 
C)  Detect minimal residual disease in cancer patients following therapy by amplifying tumor-specific fusion transcripts 
D)  Detect foreign organisms using probes targeting abundantly transcribed sequences or targeting viruses having RNA genomes 
E)  All of the above 
A)  Determine expression of selected genes by targeting their corresponding RNA transcripts 
B)  Detect certain disease-specific chromosomal translocations where RNA is transcribed across the translocation breakpoint 
C)  Detect minimal residual disease in cancer patients following therapy by amplifying tumor-specific fusion transcripts 
D)  Detect foreign organisms using probes targeting abundantly transcribed sequences or targeting viruses having RNA genomes 
E)  All of the above

Question 17

Which of the following describes a procedural step in reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR)?

Accepted Answer

A)  RNA is converted to complementary DNA (cDN
A)  using the enzyme reverse transcriptase 
B)  DNA is amplified using reverse transcriptase enzyme 
C)  RNA is cut into smaller fragments using the enzyme reverse transcriptase 
D)  None of the above 
E)  All of the above 
A)  RNA is converted to complementary DNA (cDN
A)  using the enzyme reverse transcriptase 
B)  DNA is amplified using reverse transcriptase enzyme 
C)  RNA is cut into smaller fragments using the enzyme reverse transcriptase 
D)  None of the above 
E)  All of the above

Question 18

A probe binds to its target through a process called _______________________.

Accepted Answer

A)  Transcription 
B)  Hybridization 
C)  Neutralization 
D)  Translation 
E)  None of the above 
A)  Transcription 
B)  Hybridization 
C)  Neutralization 
D)  Translation 
E)  None of the above

Question 19

Which of the following describes the reason why RNA is unstable?

Accepted Answer

A)  It is single-stranded. 
B)  It is easily degraded by ubiquitous natural enzymes collectively termed RNase. 
C)  The sugar ribose gives RNA an unstable structure. 
D)  The nucleotide uracil gives RNA an unstable structure. 
E)  None of the above 
A)  It is single-stranded. 
B)  It is easily degraded by ubiquitous natural enzymes collectively termed RNase. 
C)  The sugar ribose gives RNA an unstable structure. 
D)  The nucleotide uracil gives RNA an unstable structure. 
E)  None of the above

Question 20

Naturally occurring enzymes that chop DNA into small fragments are called ________________________.

Accepted Answer

A)  RNases 
B)  Protease 
C)  Nucleotidases 
D)  Restriction endonucleases 
E)  None of the above 
A)  RNases 
B)  Protease 
C)  Nucleotidases 
D)  Restriction endonucleases 
E)  None of the above

Exam 35: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques in Hematopathology

Which of the following enzymes are most commonly used for sequence-specific cleavage of DNA?

Which of the following methods can amplify particular segments of target DNA a billion-fold?

Which of the following are clinical applications of in situ hybridization to cells or tissues immobilized on glass slides?

Which of the following hematopoietic cancer(s) have known oncogenes related to them?

Which of the following is the major disadvantage of RT-PCR?

Which of the following is/are clinical applications of PCR?

Which of the following specimen criteria is best for DNA analysis by the Southern blot method?

Intact DNA is usually well preserved in tissues that are frozen within what time after collection?

In complementary nucleotide pairing, an adenine can bind only with __________________ and guanine can bind only with _________.

Which statement is true regarding genomic DNA extraction from blood?

Which of the following is the major disadvantage of PCR?

What is the major advantage of fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)?

Which of the following is/are true regarding "probes"?

Which anticoagulant is preferred for diagnostic procedures that analyze DNA since it does not inhibit the action of restriction endonucleases?

Human DNA is packaged into how many chromosomes?

Which of the following is/are clinical application(s) of RT-PCR?

Which of the following describes a procedural step in reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR)?

A probe binds to its target through a process called _______________________.

Which of the following describes the reason why RNA is unstable?

Naturally occurring enzymes that chop DNA into small fragments are called ________________________.

Morphology of Human Blood and Marrow Cells: Hematopoiesis

Bone Marrow

The Red Blood Cell: Structure and Function

Anemia: Diagnosis and Clinical Considerations

Evaluation of Red Blood Cell Morphology and Introduction to Platelet and White Blood Cell Morphology

Iron Metabolism and Hypochromic Anemias

Megaloblastic Anemias

Aplastic Anemia Including Pure Red Cell Aplasia and Congenital Dyserythropoietic Anemia and Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

Introduction to Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: I Hereditary Defects of the Red Cell Membrane

Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: II Hereditary Enzyme Deficiencies

Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: III the Hemoglobinopathies

Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: Iv Thalassemia

Hemolytic Anemias: Extracorpuscular Defects

Hypoproliferative Anemia: Anemia Associated With Systemic Diseases

Cell Biology, Disorders of Neutrophils, Infectious Mononucleosis, and Reactive Lymphocytosis

Introduction to Leukemia and the Acute Leukemias

Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders I: Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders Ii: Polycythemia Vera, Essential Thrombocythemia, and Idiopathic Myelofibrosis

Myelodysplastic Syndromes

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia and Related Lymphoproliferative Disorders

The Lymphomas

Multiple Myeloma and Related Plasma Cell Disorders

Lipid Lysosomal Storage Diseases and Histiocytosis

Introduction to Hemostasis

Disorders of Primary Hemostasis: Quantitative and Qualitative Platelet Disorders and Vascular Disorders

Disorders of Plasma Clotting Factors

Interaction of the Fibrinolytic, Coagulation, and Kinin Systems; Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation; and Related Pathology

Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy

Quality Control in the Hematology Laboratory

Body Fluid Examination: the Qualitative, Quantitative, and Morphologic Analysis of Serous, Cerebrospinal, and Synovial Fluids

Hematology Methods

Principles of Automated Differential Analysis

Coagulation Procedures

Applications of Flow Cytometry to Hematology and Hemostasis

Special Stainscytochemistry

Filters

In complementary nucleotide pairing, an adenine can bind only with __________ and guanine can bind only with _.