Question 1

How were Koch's postulates modified in the discovery of Tropheryma whipplei, the causative agent of Whipple's disease?

Accepted Answer

Whipple's disease was first diagnosed in

Question 2

A serum antibody ELISA would be looking for which of the following in a person who is presumed to have a necrotizing fasciitis infection?

Accepted Answer

A)  anti-group A streptococcal antibodies 
B)  antimeningococcal antibodies 
C)  group A streptococcal-specific antigens 
D)  enzyme-linked antibody 
E)  anti-group B streptococcal antibodies 
A)  anti-group A streptococcal antibodies 
B)  antimeningococcal antibodies 
C)  group A streptococcal-specific antigens 
D)  enzyme-linked antibody 
E)  anti-group B streptococcal antibodies

Question 3

Tuberculosis has become a reemerging pathogen today in large part due to

Accepted Answer

A)  increased incidence of HIV infection. 
B)  airline travel reducing geographical distances. 
C)  surge in reservoir animal populations carrying the disease to humans. 
D)  strict compliance with drug regimens. 
E)  concurrent increases in hepatitis C infection. 
A)  increased incidence of HIV infection. 
B)  airline travel reducing geographical distances. 
C)  surge in reservoir animal populations carrying the disease to humans. 
D)  strict compliance with drug regimens. 
E)  concurrent increases in hepatitis C infection.

Question 4

Fluorescent antibody staining works well for clinical diagnosis on what types of antigens?

Accepted Answer

A)  ribosomal 
B)  cytoplasmic 
C)  nuclear 
D)  capsular 
E)  plasmid 
A)  ribosomal 
B)  cytoplasmic 
C)  nuclear 
D)  capsular 
E)  plasmid

Question 5

A person who begins to exhibit symptoms of bronchitis and bacterial pneumonia after recovering from the flu would be exhibiting

Accepted Answer

A)  drug resistance. 
B)  antiviral susceptibility. 
C)  underlying immunodeficiency. 
D)  biological meltdown. 
E)  disease sequelae. 
A)  drug resistance. 
B)  antiviral susceptibility. 
C)  underlying immunodeficiency. 
D)  biological meltdown. 
E)  disease sequelae.

Question 6

John Snow, the "father of epidemiology," is known for deducing the source of which etiologic agent in the 1854 London outbreak?

Accepted Answer

A)  Shigella dysenterie 
B)  Vibrio cholerae 
C)  Haemophilius influenzae 
D)  Giardia lamblia 
E)  Yersinia pestis 
A)  Shigella dysenterie 
B)  Vibrio cholerae 
C)  Haemophilius influenzae 
D)  Giardia lamblia 
E)  Yersinia pestis

Question 7

Describe the chain of command that is followed when a patient sees his or her doctor and is diagnosed with a reportable disease such as listeriosis.

Accepted Answer

Notifiable diseases, such as listeriosis

Question 8

How can reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) be used to determine the presence and viral load of HIV infection?

Accepted Answer

A blood sample would have to be taken fr

Question 9

RNA sensors can be used to detect pathogens such as ZIKA virus. The steps below are steps used in testing for ZIKA virus. Which has the required steps in the correct order? 1- LacZ gene product is detected via a color change.
2- DNA is added to an RNA switch that has a hairpin to block transcription of lacZ.
3- Multiple copies of DNA matching ZIKA are produced.
4- In the presence of the ZIKA-trigger RNA, the "toehold" switch is bound and releases the lacZ rbs and start codon so transcription can occur.
5- Reverse transcriptase is used to produce cDNA from the ZIKA RNA.

Accepted Answer

A)  5-2-4-1-3 
B)  3-2-4-1-5 
C)  5-4-3-2-1 
D)  1-2-3-4-5 
E)  5-3-2-4-1 
A)  5-2-4-1-3 
B)  3-2-4-1-5 
C)  5-4-3-2-1 
D)  1-2-3-4-5 
E)  5-3-2-4-1

Question 10

The diagram shown below shows information relative to Gram-negative rods. We CANNOT consider this diagram to be a(n)

Accepted Answer

A)  example of tests available on an API 20E strip. 
B)  algorithm. 
C)  dichotomous key. 
D)  example of tests used to determine which type of Enterobacteriaceae an unknown might be. 
E)  random collection of tests for Gram-negative bacteria. 
A)  example of tests available on an API 20E strip. 
B)  algorithm. 
C)  dichotomous key. 
D)  example of tests used to determine which type of Enterobacteriaceae an unknown might be. 
E)  random collection of tests for Gram-negative bacteria.

Question 11

PCR-based detection of a person thought to have HIV would require all of the following EXCEPT

Accepted Answer

A)  primers specific for HIV genes. 
B)  a thermocycler. 
C)  HIV agar media. 
D)  gel electrophoresis. 
E)  HIV genome isolation/extraction. 
A)  primers specific for HIV genes. 
B)  a thermocycler. 
C)  HIV agar media. 
D)  gel electrophoresis. 
E)  HIV genome isolation/extraction.

Question 12

A proper course of action for a patient presenting with Ebola would be

Accepted Answer

A)  quarantine and laboratory determination of Ebola IgG antibodies. 
B)  vaccination and laboratory growth of Ebola in culture. 
C)  course of antibiotics and laboratory determination of Ebola antigen. 
D)  antiviral therapy followed by a course of antibiotics. 
E)  in-home supportive therapy and laboratory PCR detection. 
A)  quarantine and laboratory determination of Ebola IgG antibodies. 
B)  vaccination and laboratory growth of Ebola in culture. 
C)  course of antibiotics and laboratory determination of Ebola antigen. 
D)  antiviral therapy followed by a course of antibiotics. 
E)  in-home supportive therapy and laboratory PCR detection.

Question 13

A Gram-negative diplococcus result on a laboratory test would rule out all of the following bacteria EXCEPT

Accepted Answer

A)  Neisseria gonorrhoeae. 
B)  Listeria monocytogenes. 
C)  Staphylococcus epidermidis. 
D)  Haemophilus influenzae. 
E)  Escherichia coli. 
A)  Neisseria gonorrhoeae. 
B)  Listeria monocytogenes. 
C)  Staphylococcus epidermidis. 
D)  Haemophilus influenzae. 
E)  Escherichia coli.

Question 14

The figure shown below is a picture of a gel with multiplex PCR products from Clostridium botulinum isolates. Lane 1 contains DNA molecular weight markers and lanes 2-5 are positive strains as controls for toxins type A, type B, type E, and type F, respectively. Based on the bands shown, what can we say about the isolate results in lane 6?

Accepted Answer

A)  The isolate in lane 6 produces all four toxins but not endotoxin. 
B)  The PCR products from isolate in lane 6 are consistent with that isolate having toxins A, F, and B but not E. 
C)  The isolate in lane 6 produces all four toxins. 
D)  There is no band for endotoxin in lane 6 but the isolate makes three other toxins. 
E)  The gel shows definitive proof that this strain produces three toxins. 
A)  The isolate in lane 6 produces all four toxins but not endotoxin. 
B)  The PCR products from isolate in lane 6 are consistent with that isolate having toxins A, F, and B but not E. 
C)  The isolate in lane 6 produces all four toxins. 
D)  There is no band for endotoxin in lane 6 but the isolate makes three other toxins. 
E)  The gel shows definitive proof that this strain produces three toxins.

Question 15

Compare and contrast the dichotomous key approach to bacterial determination with the seven-digit-number approach when using the API strip system.

Accepted Answer

The API strip system results from this s

Question 16

Catalase-positive organisms such as ________ produce ________ as end products when exposed to hydrogen peroxide.

Accepted Answer

A)  Streptomyces; KCl and CO2 
B)  Streptococcus; H2O2 and H2O 
C)  Lactobacillales; CO2 and O2 
D)  Stachybotrys; HOCl and H2O 
E)  Staphylococcus; H2O and O2 
A)  Streptomyces; KCl and CO2 
B)  Streptococcus; H2O2 and H2O 
C)  Lactobacillales; CO2 and O2 
D)  Stachybotrys; HOCl and H2O 
E)  Staphylococcus; H2O and O2

Question 17

Compare and contrast the handling of rabies (a category III organism) with Lassa fever (a category IV organism).

Accepted Answer

Category III organisms, such as rabies,

Question 18

A person exhibiting glomerular nephritis and rheumatic fever must have had what type of previous infection?

Accepted Answer

A)  Shigella sonnei 
B)  Escherichia coli 
C)  Streptococcus pyogenes 
D)  Treponema pallidum 
E)  Mycobacterium tuberculosis 
A)  Shigella sonnei 
B)  Escherichia coli 
C)  Streptococcus pyogenes 
D)  Treponema pallidum 
E)  Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 19

Which infectious disease is on the CDC bioterrorism list due to the general population NOT being vaccinated for this disease since the 1970s?

Accepted Answer

A)  bubonic plague 
B)  rabies 
C)  smallpox 
D)  tuberculosis 
E)  Machupo virus 
A)  bubonic plague 
B)  rabies 
C)  smallpox 
D)  tuberculosis 
E)  Machupo virus

Question 20

Which of the following organisms falls within biosafety group category II?

Accepted Answer

A)  Ebola virus 
B)  SARS 
C)  Mycobacterium tuberculosis 
D)  Escherichia coli strain K-12 
E)  Campylobacter jejuni 
A)  Ebola virus 
B)  SARS 
C)  Mycobacterium tuberculosis 
D)  Escherichia coli strain K-12 
E)  Campylobacter jejuni

Exam 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology

How were Koch's postulates modified in the discovery of Tropheryma whipplei, the causative agent of Whipple's disease?

A serum antibody ELISA would be looking for which of the following in a person who is presumed to have a necrotizing fasciitis infection?

Tuberculosis has become a reemerging pathogen today in large part due to

Fluorescent antibody staining works well for clinical diagnosis on what types of antigens?

A person who begins to exhibit symptoms of bronchitis and bacterial pneumonia after recovering from the flu would be exhibiting

John Snow, the "father of epidemiology," is known for deducing the source of which etiologic agent in the 1854 London outbreak?

Describe the chain of command that is followed when a patient sees his or her doctor and is diagnosed with a reportable disease such as listeriosis.

How can reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) be used to determine the presence and viral load of HIV infection?

The diagram shown below shows information relative to Gram-negative rods. We CANNOT consider this diagram to be a(n)

PCR-based detection of a person thought to have HIV would require all of the following EXCEPT

A proper course of action for a patient presenting with Ebola would be

A Gram-negative diplococcus result on a laboratory test would rule out all of the following bacteria EXCEPT

Compare and contrast the dichotomous key approach to bacterial determination with the seven-digit-number approach when using the API strip system.

Catalase-positive organisms such as ________ produce ________ as end products when exposed to hydrogen peroxide.

Compare and contrast the handling of rabies (a category III organism) with Lassa fever (a category IV organism).

A person exhibiting glomerular nephritis and rheumatic fever must have had what type of previous infection?

Which infectious disease is on the CDC bioterrorism list due to the general population NOT being vaccinated for this disease since the 1970s?

Which of the following organisms falls within biosafety group category II?

Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery

Observing the Microbial Cell

Cell Structure and Function

Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development

Environmental Influences and Control of Microbial Growth

Viruses

Genomes and Chromosomes

Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics

Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome Evolution

Molecular Regulation

Viral Molecular Biology

Biotechniques and Synthetic Biology

Energetics and Catabolism

Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy

Biosynthesis

Food and Industrial Microbiology

Origins and Evolution

Bacterial Diversity

Archaeal Diversity

Eukaryotic Diversity

Microbial Ecology

Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles

Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity

The Adaptive Immune Response

Microbial Pathogenesis

Microbial Diseases

Antimicrobial Therapy

Filters

Catalase-positive organisms such as produce as end products when exposed to hydrogen peroxide.