Question 1

How is hepatitis B transmitted?

Accepted Answer

A) Contaminated food and water 
B) Blood and body fluids 
C) Respiratory droplets 
D) Airborne 
A) Contaminated food and water 
B) Blood and body fluids 
C) Respiratory droplets 
D) Airborne

Question 2

Which hepatitis virus is spread by the fecal/oral route?

Accepted Answer

A) Hepatitis B 
B) Hepatitis A 
C) Hepatitis C 
D) Hepatitis D 
A) Hepatitis B 
B) Hepatitis A 
C) Hepatitis C 
D) Hepatitis D

Question 3

What is one of the biggest uses for Western blot tests in the laboratory today?

Accepted Answer

A) Confirming antibodies to HIV 
B) Confirming antibodies to cytomegalovirus (CMV) 
C) Confirming antibodies to rubella 
D) DNA sequencing from herpes 
A) Confirming antibodies to HIV 
B) Confirming antibodies to cytomegalovirus (CMV) 
C) Confirming antibodies to rubella 
D) DNA sequencing from herpes

Question 4

What is one of the most popular methods for physical removal of IgG?

Accepted Answer

A) Miniature ion-exchange chromatography columns 
B) Thin-layer chromatography 
C) High-performance liquid chromatography (HPL
C)  
D) Mass spectroscopy 
A) Miniature ion-exchange chromatography columns 
B) Thin-layer chromatography 
C) High-performance liquid chromatography (HPL
C)  
D) Mass spectroscopy

Question 5

What test principle uses microbial antigens that are attached to erythrocytes after chemical treatment of the cells that promotes cross-linking of the antigens?

Accepted Answer

A) Indirect hemagglutination (IH
A)  
B) Enzyme immunoassay (EI
A)  
C) Complement fixation (CF) 
D) Latex agglutination (L
A)  
A) Indirect hemagglutination (IH
A)  
B) Enzyme immunoassay (EI
A)  
C) Complement fixation (CF) 
D) Latex agglutination (L
A)

Question 6

Confirmatory tests for syphilis include all the following except:

Accepted Answer

A) FTA-ABS. 
B) TP-PA. 
C) RPR. 
D) MHA-TP. 
A) FTA-ABS. 
B) TP-PA. 
C) RPR. 
D) MHA-TP.

Question 7

Serologic tests can help epidemiologists:

Accepted Answer

A) determine if people in a particular area are immune to an infectious agent. 
B) identify people that need to get immunizations. 
C) identify children that need to get immunizations. 
D) determine how widespread an infectious agent is in a given area. 
A) determine if people in a particular area are immune to an infectious agent. 
B) identify people that need to get immunizations. 
C) identify children that need to get immunizations. 
D) determine how widespread an infectious agent is in a given area.

Question 8

A direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) test involves:

Accepted Answer

A) an antigen-specific labeled antibody. 
B) an antibody-specific labeled antigen. 
C) a bioluminescent label. 
D) none of the above. 
A) an antigen-specific labeled antibody. 
B) an antibody-specific labeled antigen. 
C) a bioluminescent label. 
D) none of the above.

Question 9

John goes to his physician complaining of a high fever (38.2° C [102° F]), muscle aches, cough, and a headache.These symptoms came on suddenly, and his physician thinks John may have the flu.What kind of antibody is his body producing against the virus?

Accepted Answer

A) IgG 
B) IgM 
C) IgE 
D) IgD 
A) IgG 
B) IgM 
C) IgE 
D) IgD

Question 10

A significant rise in IgG detected during the convalescent phase is diagnostic for infection and is called:

Accepted Answer

A) serologic adaptation. 
B) convalescence. 
C) seroconversion. 
D) acute phase reactant. 
A) serologic adaptation. 
B) convalescence. 
C) seroconversion. 
D) acute phase reactant.

Question 11

In precipitation assays, what is the precipitate made out of?

Accepted Answer

A) Complement and protein complex 
B) Antibody and protein complex 
C) Antigen and antibody complex 
D) Antigen and protein complex 
A) Complement and protein complex 
B) Antibody and protein complex 
C) Antigen and antibody complex 
D) Antigen and protein complex

Question 12

What test is used to diagnose an Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection?

Accepted Answer

A) ASO 
B) EBV antibody 
C) Heterophile antibody 
D) Cold agglutinin 
A) ASO 
B) EBV antibody 
C) Heterophile antibody 
D) Cold agglutinin

Question 13

Prozone occurs:

Accepted Answer

A) when the relative concentration of an antibody exceeds the concentration of an antigen. 
B) when the relative concentration of an antigen exceeds the concentration of an antigen. 
C) when there are interfering substances in the specimen. 
D) in the equivalence zone. 
A) when the relative concentration of an antibody exceeds the concentration of an antigen. 
B) when the relative concentration of an antigen exceeds the concentration of an antigen. 
C) when there are interfering substances in the specimen. 
D) in the equivalence zone.

Question 14

When a person is exposed to an antigen for a second time, what type of response is mounted?

Accepted Answer

A) Anamnestic 
B) Tertiary 
C) Full blown 
D) Allergic 
A) Anamnestic 
B) Tertiary 
C) Full blown 
D) Allergic

Question 15

Which organism can cause hospitalization in young children and is detected using fluorescent antibodies?

Accepted Answer

A) Bordetella 
B) Klebsiella 
C) Streptococcus 
D) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) 
A) Bordetella 
B) Klebsiella 
C) Streptococcus 
D) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

Question 16

A monoclonal antibody is an antibody that is derived from:

Accepted Answer

A) one cell and exposed to many epitopes. 
B) many cells and exposed to one epitope. 
C) one cell and exposed to no epitopes. 
D) one cell initially, which has been exposed to one epitope. 
A) one cell and exposed to many epitopes. 
B) many cells and exposed to one epitope. 
C) one cell and exposed to no epitopes. 
D) one cell initially, which has been exposed to one epitope.

Question 17

Heterophile antibodies are antibodies:

Accepted Answer

A) produced in response to one antigen. 
B) that must be cleared through the thymus before going into circulation. 
C) produced in response to one molecule that also react against an antigen from another species. 
D) produced by T cells. 
A) produced in response to one antigen. 
B) that must be cleared through the thymus before going into circulation. 
C) produced in response to one molecule that also react against an antigen from another species. 
D) produced by T cells.

Question 18

What is the principle of direct antigen testing?

Accepted Answer

A) A clinical specimen is mixed with an antigen, then a labeled antibody is added.If the antigen is present, a complex will form. 
B) It is a process by which microbial antigens are identified in patient specimens by combining specifically with antibody molecules to form stable complexes. 
C) A fluorescent antigen is added to a specimen, then an antibody to form sandwich complexes. 
D) Labeled antigen is added to a specimen, and the specimen is read for fluorescence. 
A) A clinical specimen is mixed with an antigen, then a labeled antibody is added.If the antigen is present, a complex will form. 
B) It is a process by which microbial antigens are identified in patient specimens by combining specifically with antibody molecules to form stable complexes. 
C) A fluorescent antigen is added to a specimen, then an antibody to form sandwich complexes. 
D) Labeled antigen is added to a specimen, and the specimen is read for fluorescence.

Question 19

Mary went out to eat shellfish last week and is now beginning to feel lethargic.Her urine is tea-colored, and she generally feels bad all over.She recognizes these symptoms and thinks she may have hepatitis A because she got hepatitis last year when she vacationed at the beach.If a physician were to perform a test for hepatitis A antibodies, what class of antibodies would the physician find?

Accepted Answer

A) IgM 
B) IgE 
C) IgG 
D) IgD 
A) IgM 
B) IgE 
C) IgG 
D) IgD

Question 20

How does Clostridium difficile produce pseudomembranous colitis and antibiotic-associated diarrhea?

Accepted Answer

A) Endotoxin 
B) Hyaluronidase 
C) Toxin A and toxin B (exotoxins) 
D) Protease 
A) Endotoxin 
B) Hyaluronidase 
C) Toxin A and toxin B (exotoxins) 
D) Protease

Exam 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases

How is hepatitis B transmitted?

Which hepatitis virus is spread by the fecal/oral route?

What is one of the biggest uses for Western blot tests in the laboratory today?

What is one of the most popular methods for physical removal of IgG?

What test principle uses microbial antigens that are attached to erythrocytes after chemical treatment of the cells that promotes cross-linking of the antigens?

Confirmatory tests for syphilis include all the following except:

Serologic tests can help epidemiologists:

A direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) test involves:

John goes to his physician complaining of a high fever (38.2° C [102° F]), muscle aches, cough, and a headache.These symptoms came on suddenly, and his physician thinks John may have the flu.What kind of antibody is his body producing against the virus?

A significant rise in IgG detected during the convalescent phase is diagnostic for infection and is called:

In precipitation assays, what is the precipitate made out of?

What test is used to diagnose an Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection?

Prozone occurs:

When a person is exposed to an antigen for a second time, what type of response is mounted?

Which organism can cause hospitalization in young children and is detected using fluorescent antibodies?

A monoclonal antibody is an antibody that is derived from:

Heterophile antibodies are antibodies:

What is the principle of direct antigen testing?

How does Clostridium difficile produce pseudomembranous colitis and antibiotic-associated diarrhea?

Bacterial Cell Structure, Physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics

Host-Parasite Interaction

The Laboratory Role in Infection Control

Control of Microorganisms

Performance Improvement in the Microbiology Laboratory

Specimen Collection and Processing

Microscopic Examination of Materials From Infected Sites

Use of Colony Morphology for the Presumptive Identification of Microorganisms

Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria

Applications of Molecular Diagnostics

Antimicrobial Agent Mechanisms of Action and Resistance

Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing

Staphylococci

Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Other Catalase-Negative, Gram-Positive Cocci

Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli

Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis

Haemophilus and Other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli

Enterobacteriaceae

Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas, and Campylobacter Species

Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous Gram-Negative Bacilli

Anaerobes of Clinical Importance

The Spirochetes

Chlamydia, Rickettsia and Similar Organisms

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Nontuberculous Mycobacteria

Medically Significant Fungi

Diagnostic Parasitology

Clinical Virology

Agents of Bioterror and Forensic Microbiology

Biofilms: Architects of Disease

Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections

Skin and Soft Tissue Infections

Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning

Infections of the Central Nervous System

Bacteremia and Sepsis

Urinary Tract Infections

Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Diseases

Infections in Special Populations

Zoonotic Diseases

Ocular Infections

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