Question 1

What patients are highly susceptible to cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections?

Accepted Answer

A) Immunosuppressed 
B) Immunocompetent 
C) Males 
D) Females 
A) Immunosuppressed 
B) Immunocompetent 
C) Males 
D) Females A

Question 2

All of the following are important pulmonary pathogens in transplant, cancer, and AIDS patients except:

Accepted Answer

A) Cryptococcus. 
B) Group A Streptococcus. 
C) Pneumocystis. 
D) Cytomegalovirus (CMV). 
A) Cryptococcus. 
B) Group A Streptococcus. 
C) Pneumocystis. 
D) Cytomegalovirus (CMV). B

Question 3

Infection with cytomegalovirus (CMV) in nonimmune pregnant women can cause:

Accepted Answer

A) misshapen limbs. 
B) congenital heart defects. 
C) liver problems. 
D) microencephalopathy. 
A) misshapen limbs. 
B) congenital heart defects. 
C) liver problems. 
D) microencephalopathy. D

Question 4

What test has its results reported as the relative amount of a signal generated by the patient's serum when compared with that of a known weakly positive serum?

Accepted Answer

A) Enzyme immunoassay (EI
A)  
B) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELIS
A)  
C) Radioimmunoassay (RI
A)  
D) Solid phase immunobead assay (SPI
A)  
A) Enzyme immunoassay (EI
A)  
B) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELIS
A)  
C) Radioimmunoassay (RI
A)  
D) Solid phase immunobead assay (SPI
A)

Question 5

If a baby were exposed to hepatitis A in utero, what type of antibodies would be produced?

Accepted Answer

A) IgD 
B) IgE 
C) IgG 
D) IgM 
A) IgD 
B) IgE 
C) IgG 
D) IgM

Question 6

Avidity means the antibodies have _____ binding kinetics to specific _____.

Accepted Answer

A) strong; antigens 
B) weak; antigens 
C) strong; antibodies 
D) weak; antibodies 
A) strong; antigens 
B) weak; antigens 
C) strong; antibodies 
D) weak; antibodies

Question 7

What is the advantage of using an indirect sandwich assay for EIA?

Accepted Answer

A) One enzyme conjugated antiimmune antibody can be used for several tests. 
B) It is much more specific than direct sandwich EIA. 
C) It is much more sensitive than direct sandwich EIA. 
D) The lower detection limit is superior to any other EIA test. 
A) One enzyme conjugated antiimmune antibody can be used for several tests. 
B) It is much more specific than direct sandwich EIA. 
C) It is much more sensitive than direct sandwich EIA. 
D) The lower detection limit is superior to any other EIA test.

Question 8

What is one of the most widely used applications of the direct antigen test?

Accepted Answer

A) HIV in saliva 
B) Group A strep in throat swabs 
C) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in urine 
D) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) in hair follicles 
A) HIV in saliva 
B) Group A strep in throat swabs 
C) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in urine 
D) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) in hair follicles

Question 9

Streptozyme detects all of the following except:

Accepted Answer

A) streptokinase. 
B) hyaluronidase. 
C) streptolysin-O. 
D) hippurate hydrolysis. 
A) streptokinase. 
B) hyaluronidase. 
C) streptolysin-O. 
D) hippurate hydrolysis.

Question 10

What is the name of the test used to detect rickettsial agents?

Accepted Answer

A) Levy-Jennings 
B) Mueller-Hinton 
C) Weil-Felix 
D) Watson-Crick 
A) Levy-Jennings 
B) Mueller-Hinton 
C) Weil-Felix 
D) Watson-Crick

Question 11

When the antigen-binding sites on the antibody molecule react with specific epitopes and not with other antigens containing different epitopes, this is antibody molecule is displaying:

Accepted Answer

A) high sensitivity. 
B) high specificity. 
C) low specificity. 
D) low sensitivity. 
A) high sensitivity. 
B) high specificity. 
C) low specificity. 
D) low sensitivity.

Question 12

Latex agglutination kits are currently available for all the following bacterial antigens except:

Accepted Answer

A) Cryptococcus neoformans. 
B) Neisseria meningitidis. 
C) Haemophilus influenzae. 
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae. 
A) Cryptococcus neoformans. 
B) Neisseria meningitidis. 
C) Haemophilus influenzae. 
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Question 13

What is used as the indicator in a complement fixation (CF) test?

Accepted Answer

A) Latex particles 
B) Horse red blood cells 
C) Rabbit red blood cells 
D) Sheep red blood cells 
A) Latex particles 
B) Horse red blood cells 
C) Rabbit red blood cells 
D) Sheep red blood cells

Question 14

What two methods are used to diagnose histoplasmosis and coccidioidomycosis?

Accepted Answer

A) Complement fixation and immunodiffusion 
B) Enzyme immunoassay (EI
A)  and immunodiffusion 
C) Complement fixation and hemagglutination inhibition (HAI) 
D) Agglutination and precipitation 
A) Complement fixation and immunodiffusion 
B) Enzyme immunoassay (EI
A)  and immunodiffusion 
C) Complement fixation and hemagglutination inhibition (HAI) 
D) Agglutination and precipitation

Question 15

Which hepatitis virus commonly leads to chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis, often requiring a liver transplant, and causes a high risk for development of liver cancer?

Accepted Answer

A) Hepatitis A 
B) Hepatitis D 
C) Hepatitis C 
D) Hepatitis E 
A) Hepatitis A 
B) Hepatitis D 
C) Hepatitis C 
D) Hepatitis E

Question 16

All of the following are congenital defects produced by rubella except:

Accepted Answer

A) deafness. 
B) blindness. 
C) cataracts. 
D) congenital heart disease. 
A) deafness. 
B) blindness. 
C) cataracts. 
D) congenital heart disease.

Question 17

Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) differs from immunofluorescent tests by:

Accepted Answer

A) using a different fluorescent label. 
B) using enzymes and a chromogenic substrate. 
C) being valid for direct testing only. 
D) all of the above. 
A) using a different fluorescent label. 
B) using enzymes and a chromogenic substrate. 
C) being valid for direct testing only. 
D) all of the above.

Question 18

A false-negative serologic test is defined as a:

Accepted Answer

A) positive result for someone who is not infected. 
B) negative result for someone who does not have the disease. 
C) positive result for someone who does have the disease. 
D) negative result for a patient who really is infected. 
A) positive result for someone who is not infected. 
B) negative result for someone who does not have the disease. 
C) positive result for someone who does have the disease. 
D) negative result for a patient who really is infected.

Question 19

All of the following are hepatitis antibodies except:

Accepted Answer

A) EBNA. 
B) HBsAg. 
C) HBcAg. 
D) HBeAg. 
A) EBNA. 
B) HBsAg. 
C) HBcAg. 
D) HBeAg.

Question 20

The difference between dot blots and Western blots is that in dot blot testing:

Accepted Answer

A) proteins are blotted to specific areas. 
B) proteins are purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface. 
C) DNA is purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface. 
D) RNA is purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface. 
A) proteins are blotted to specific areas. 
B) proteins are purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface. 
C) DNA is purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface. 
D) RNA is purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface.

Exam 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases

What patients are highly susceptible to cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections?

All of the following are important pulmonary pathogens in transplant, cancer, and AIDS patients except:

Infection with cytomegalovirus (CMV) in nonimmune pregnant women can cause:

What test has its results reported as the relative amount of a signal generated by the patient's serum when compared with that of a known weakly positive serum?

If a baby were exposed to hepatitis A in utero, what type of antibodies would be produced?

Avidity means the antibodies have _____ binding kinetics to specific _____.

What is the advantage of using an indirect sandwich assay for EIA?

What is one of the most widely used applications of the direct antigen test?

Streptozyme detects all of the following except:

What is the name of the test used to detect rickettsial agents?

When the antigen-binding sites on the antibody molecule react with specific epitopes and not with other antigens containing different epitopes, this is antibody molecule is displaying:

Latex agglutination kits are currently available for all the following bacterial antigens except:

What is used as the indicator in a complement fixation (CF) test?

What two methods are used to diagnose histoplasmosis and coccidioidomycosis?

Which hepatitis virus commonly leads to chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis, often requiring a liver transplant, and causes a high risk for development of liver cancer?

All of the following are congenital defects produced by rubella except:

Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) differs from immunofluorescent tests by:

A false-negative serologic test is defined as a:

All of the following are hepatitis antibodies except:

The difference between dot blots and Western blots is that in dot blot testing:

Bacterial Cell Structure, Physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics

Host-Parasite Interaction

The Laboratory Role in Infection Control

Control of Microorganisms

Performance Improvement in the Microbiology Laboratory

Specimen Collection and Processing

Microscopic Examination of Materials From Infected Sites

Use of Colony Morphology for the Presumptive Identification of Microorganisms

Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria

Applications of Molecular Diagnostics

Antimicrobial Agent Mechanisms of Action and Resistance

Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing

Staphylococci

Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Other Catalase-Negative, Gram-Positive Cocci

Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli

Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis

Haemophilus and Other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli

Enterobacteriaceae

Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas, and Campylobacter Species

Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous Gram-Negative Bacilli

Anaerobes of Clinical Importance

The Spirochetes

Chlamydia, Rickettsia and Similar Organisms

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Nontuberculous Mycobacteria

Medically Significant Fungi

Diagnostic Parasitology

Clinical Virology

Agents of Bioterror and Forensic Microbiology

Biofilms: Architects of Disease

Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections

Skin and Soft Tissue Infections

Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning

Infections of the Central Nervous System

Bacteremia and Sepsis

Urinary Tract Infections

Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Diseases

Infections in Special Populations

Zoonotic Diseases

Ocular Infections

Filters

Avidity means the antibodies have _ binding kinetics to specific _.