Exam 11: Applications of Molecular Diagnostics
Exam 1: Bacterial Cell Structure, Physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics48 Questions
Exam 2: Host-Parasite Interaction44 Questions
Exam 3: The Laboratory Role in Infection Control29 Questions
Exam 4: Control of Microorganisms60 Questions
Exam 5: Performance Improvement in the Microbiology Laboratory39 Questions
Exam 6: Specimen Collection and Processing57 Questions
Exam 7: Microscopic Examination of Materials From Infected Sites34 Questions
Exam 8: Use of Colony Morphology for the Presumptive Identification of Microorganisms37 Questions
Exam 9: Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria52 Questions
Exam 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases56 Questions
Exam 11: Applications of Molecular Diagnostics50 Questions
Exam 12: Antimicrobial Agent Mechanisms of Action and Resistance44 Questions
Exam 13: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing83 Questions
Exam 14: Staphylococci34 Questions
Exam 15: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Other Catalase-Negative, Gram-Positive Cocci37 Questions
Exam 16: Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli45 Questions
Exam 17: Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis31 Questions
Exam 18: Haemophilus and Other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli29 Questions
Exam 19: Enterobacteriaceae30 Questions
Exam 20: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas, and Campylobacter Species27 Questions
Exam 21: Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous Gram-Negative Bacilli28 Questions
Exam 22: Anaerobes of Clinical Importance34 Questions
Exam 23: The Spirochetes26 Questions
Exam 24: Chlamydia, Rickettsia and Similar Organisms24 Questions
Exam 25: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma20 Questions
Exam 26: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Nontuberculous Mycobacteria34 Questions
Exam 27: Medically Significant Fungi26 Questions
Exam 28: Diagnostic Parasitology20 Questions
Exam 29: Clinical Virology40 Questions
Exam 30: Agents of Bioterror and Forensic Microbiology33 Questions
Exam 31: Biofilms: Architects of Disease27 Questions
Exam 32: Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections33 Questions
Exam 33: Skin and Soft Tissue Infections30 Questions
Exam 34: Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning33 Questions
Exam 35: Infections of the Central Nervous System26 Questions
Exam 36: Bacteremia and Sepsis33 Questions
Exam 37: Urinary Tract Infections31 Questions
Exam 38: Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Diseases25 Questions
Exam 39: Infections in Special Populations20 Questions
Exam 40: Zoonotic Diseases22 Questions
Exam 41: Ocular Infections25 Questions
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In situ hybridization, first described in 1969, is where:
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
D
One drawback to polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is:
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
A
Accurate epidemiologic surveillance of specific organisms is needed for all the following reasons except:
(Multiple Choice)
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What chemical has been very successful in reducing carryover from polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assays?
(Multiple Choice)
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When an organism's genome is sequenced, all of the following information can be obtained except:
(Multiple Choice)
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The advantages of real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR) over standard PCR include all the following except:
(Multiple Choice)
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The variables that affect the outcome of a given hybridization reaction include all of the following except:
(Multiple Choice)
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What cation is required for the proper function of the Taq DNA polymerase?
(Multiple Choice)
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The steps for performing the Southern blot test include all the following except:
(Multiple Choice)
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During the denaturation step in polymerase chain reaction (PCR):
(Multiple Choice)
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The principle of solid support hybridization (often called blotting) is:
(Multiple Choice)
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All of the following amplified typing techniques are used to differentiate strains for an organism except:
(Multiple Choice)
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The steps for performing the Northern blot test include all the following except:
(Multiple Choice)
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