Exam 38: Medical Gas Therapy
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care28 Questions
Exam 2: Quality and Evidence-Based Respiratory Care29 Questions
Exam 3: Patient Safety, Communication, and Record Keeping52 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Control32 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice36 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care89 Questions
Exam 7: Computer Applications in Respiratory Care26 Questions
Exam 8: The Respiratory System131 Questions
Exam 9: The Cardiovascular System65 Questions
Exam 10: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 11: Gas Exchange and Transport85 Questions
Exam 12: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes95 Questions
Exam 13: Acid-Base Balance97 Questions
Exam 14: Regulation of Breathing48 Questions
Exam 15: Bedside Assessment of the Patient95 Questions
Exam 16: Interpretation of Clinical Laboratory Data30 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram34 Questions
Exam 18: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange125 Questions
Exam 19: Pulmonary Function Testing67 Questions
Exam 20: A Review of Thoracic Imaging46 Questions
Exam 21: Nutrition Assessment42 Questions
Exam 22: Pulmonary Infections54 Questions
Exam 23: Obstructive Lung Disease: Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases57 Questions
Exam 24: Interstitial Lung Disease54 Questions
Exam 25: Pleural Diseases48 Questions
Exam 26: Pulmonary Vascular Disease60 Questions
Exam 27: Acute Lung Injury, Pulmonary Edema, and Multiple System Organ32 Questions
Exam 28: Lung Cancer30 Questions
Exam 29: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall32 Questions
Exam 30: Disorders of Sleep31 Questions
Exam 31: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders88 Questions
Exam 32: Airway Pharmacology76 Questions
Exam 33: Airway Management119 Questions
Exam 34: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support74 Questions
Exam 35: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy112 Questions
Exam 36: Aerosol Drug Therapy123 Questions
Exam 37: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases80 Questions
Exam 38: Medical Gas Therapy97 Questions
Exam 39: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 40: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy97 Questions
Exam 41: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support50 Questions
Exam 42: Mechanical Ventilators80 Questions
Exam 43: Physiology of Ventilatory Support90 Questions
Exam 44: Initiating and Adjusting Ventilatory Support103 Questions
Exam 45: Noninvasive Positive Pressure Ventilation50 Questions
Exam 46: Monitoring and Management of the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit55 Questions
Exam 47: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support66 Questions
Exam 48: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care37 Questions
Exam 49: Patient Education and Health Promotion19 Questions
Exam 50: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation65 Questions
Exam 51: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings138 Questions
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You set up an Oxy-Hood with an FIO2 of 0.5 for a newborn infant. What is the maximum time that should pass before assessing this patient's PaO2 or SaO2?
(Multiple Choice)
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You design an air-entrainment system that mixes air with O2 at a fixed ratio of 1:7 (1 L air to 7 L O2). About what O2 will this device provide?
(Multiple Choice)
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A physician places a patient in respiratory failure on 100% O2. To avoid the hazards of O2 toxicity, you would recommend that every effort be made to reduce this FIO2 to less than 50% within what time frame?
(Multiple Choice)
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Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is a potentially serious management problem mainly in the care of whom?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the minimum flow setting for a simple mask applied to an adult?
(Multiple Choice)
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Benefits of properly applied O2 therapy in patients with chronic hypoxemia include all of the following except:
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the level of SpO2 typically associated with discontinuation of O2 therapy?
(Multiple Choice)
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To minimize the risk of retinopathy of prematurity (ROP), the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends keeping the PaO2 below what level?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient receiving 3 L/min O2 through a nasal cannula has a measured SpO2 of 93% and no clinical signs of hypoxemia. At this point, what should you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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In which of the following clinical situations would you recommend hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) therapy, if available?
I.carbon monoxide poisoning
II.respiratory or cardiac arrest
III.severe trauma
IV.cyanide poisoning
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following factors will decrease the FIO2 delivered by a low-flow O2 system?
I.short inspiratory time
II.fast rate of breathing
III.lower O2 input
IV.large minute ventilation
(Multiple Choice)
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Retinopathy of prematurity may result in which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient breathing 100% O2 for 24 hours or longer would most likely exhibit which of the following?
I.decreased DLCO
II.decreased CL
III.increased PAO2 - PaO2
IV.decreased VC
(Multiple Choice)
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You start a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) patient on a nasal O2 cannula at 2 L/min. What is the maximum time that should pass before assessing this patient's PaO2 or SaO2?
(Multiple Choice)
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In giving O2 to an infant through a hood, which of the following is/are correct?
I. A neutral thermal environment should be maintained.
II. Gases should be directed away from the infant’s face.
III. High input flow (greater than 10 to 15 L/min) should be avoided.
IV. A minimum flow of 7 L/min must be maintained.
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following factors should be used in properly selecting an O2 delivery device?
I.knowledge of general performance of the device
II.physician's preference
III.individual capabilities of the equipment
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the recommended initial dose of inhaled NO in neonates with respiratory distress syndrome?
(Multiple Choice)
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Where would you measure the FIO2 in an NO delivery system used with a mechanical ventilator?
(Multiple Choice)
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A 45-year-old patient with congestive heart failure is receiving O2 through a 35% air-entrainment mask. With an O2 input of 6 L/min, what is the total output gas flow?
(Multiple Choice)
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