Exam 38: Medical Gas Therapy
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care28 Questions
Exam 2: Quality and Evidence-Based Respiratory Care29 Questions
Exam 3: Patient Safety, Communication, and Record Keeping52 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Control32 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice36 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care89 Questions
Exam 7: Computer Applications in Respiratory Care26 Questions
Exam 8: The Respiratory System131 Questions
Exam 9: The Cardiovascular System65 Questions
Exam 10: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 11: Gas Exchange and Transport85 Questions
Exam 12: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes95 Questions
Exam 13: Acid-Base Balance97 Questions
Exam 14: Regulation of Breathing48 Questions
Exam 15: Bedside Assessment of the Patient95 Questions
Exam 16: Interpretation of Clinical Laboratory Data30 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram34 Questions
Exam 18: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange125 Questions
Exam 19: Pulmonary Function Testing67 Questions
Exam 20: A Review of Thoracic Imaging46 Questions
Exam 21: Nutrition Assessment42 Questions
Exam 22: Pulmonary Infections54 Questions
Exam 23: Obstructive Lung Disease: Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases57 Questions
Exam 24: Interstitial Lung Disease54 Questions
Exam 25: Pleural Diseases48 Questions
Exam 26: Pulmonary Vascular Disease60 Questions
Exam 27: Acute Lung Injury, Pulmonary Edema, and Multiple System Organ32 Questions
Exam 28: Lung Cancer30 Questions
Exam 29: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall32 Questions
Exam 30: Disorders of Sleep31 Questions
Exam 31: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders88 Questions
Exam 32: Airway Pharmacology76 Questions
Exam 33: Airway Management119 Questions
Exam 34: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support74 Questions
Exam 35: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy112 Questions
Exam 36: Aerosol Drug Therapy123 Questions
Exam 37: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases80 Questions
Exam 38: Medical Gas Therapy97 Questions
Exam 39: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 40: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy97 Questions
Exam 41: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support50 Questions
Exam 42: Mechanical Ventilators80 Questions
Exam 43: Physiology of Ventilatory Support90 Questions
Exam 44: Initiating and Adjusting Ventilatory Support103 Questions
Exam 45: Noninvasive Positive Pressure Ventilation50 Questions
Exam 46: Monitoring and Management of the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit55 Questions
Exam 47: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support66 Questions
Exam 48: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care37 Questions
Exam 49: Patient Education and Health Promotion19 Questions
Exam 50: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation65 Questions
Exam 51: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings138 Questions
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Potential uses for inhaled NO include all of the following except:
(Multiple Choice)
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An O2 delivery device takes separate pressurized air and O2 sources as input, then mixes these gases through a precision valve. What does this describe?
(Multiple Choice)
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You enter the room of a patient who is receiving nasal O2 through a bubble humidifier at 5 L/min. You immediately notice that the humidifier pressure relief is popping off. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate in this situation?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following would indicate a need for O2 therapy for an adult or child?
I.SaO2 less than 90%
II.PaCO2 greater than 45 mm Hg
III.PaO2 less than 60 mm Hg
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is considered an advantage of the transtracheal catheter?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following would indicate adequate oxygenation for adult patients with chronic lung disease and an accompanying acute-on-chronic hypoxemia?
I.SaO2 of 90% or higher
II.PaO2 of 50 mm Hg to 60 mm Hg
III.SaO2 of 85% to 90%
(Multiple Choice)
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Toxic side effects of inhaled NO include all of the following except:
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following statements is false about low-flow O2 delivery systems?
(Multiple Choice)
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A physician orders a 70% He:30% O2 mixture to reduce the work of breathing in a patient having an acute asthmatic attack. Which of the following delivery systems would be appropriate in this case?
(Multiple Choice)
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Physiologic effects of hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) therapy include all of the following except:
(Multiple Choice)
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A well-fitted nonrebreathing mask, adjusted so that the patient's inhalation does not deflate the bag (flows between 6 and 10 L/min), should provide inspired O2 concentrations in what range?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient receiving 35% O2 through an air-entrainment mask set at 6 L/min input flow becomes tachypneic. Simultaneously, you notice that the SpO2 has fallen from 91% to 87%. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate in this situation?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the minimum criterion for how often an O2 delivery system should be checked according to the clinical practice guidelines from the AARC?
(Multiple Choice)
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Compared to air, the density of an 80% He and 20% O2 mixture is about which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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You connect an intubated patient to an air-entrainment nebulizer system through a T-tube set at 60% with an input flow of 15 L/min. Toward the middle of inspiration, you observe that mist stops exiting from the open end of the T-tube. What does this indicate?
(Multiple Choice)
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Physiologic effects of inhaled nitric oxide (NO) include all of the following except:
(Multiple Choice)
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At an FIO2 of 1, what is the approximate half-life of blood carboxyhemoglobin?
(Multiple Choice)
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A physician orders supplemental O2 for a patient through a nasal cannula at a flow of 12 L/min. When you ask what the goal is, the physician states that the patient should receive about 60% O2. Which of the following should you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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Directing a cool O2 mixture to an infant in an Oxy-Hood can result in which of the following?
I.increased O2 consumption
II.increased convective heat loss
III.apnea (cessation of breathing)
(Multiple Choice)
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