Exam 38: Medical Gas Therapy
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care28 Questions
Exam 2: Quality and Evidence-Based Respiratory Care29 Questions
Exam 3: Patient Safety, Communication, and Record Keeping52 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Control32 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice36 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care89 Questions
Exam 7: Computer Applications in Respiratory Care26 Questions
Exam 8: The Respiratory System131 Questions
Exam 9: The Cardiovascular System65 Questions
Exam 10: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 11: Gas Exchange and Transport85 Questions
Exam 12: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes95 Questions
Exam 13: Acid-Base Balance97 Questions
Exam 14: Regulation of Breathing48 Questions
Exam 15: Bedside Assessment of the Patient95 Questions
Exam 16: Interpretation of Clinical Laboratory Data30 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram34 Questions
Exam 18: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange125 Questions
Exam 19: Pulmonary Function Testing67 Questions
Exam 20: A Review of Thoracic Imaging46 Questions
Exam 21: Nutrition Assessment42 Questions
Exam 22: Pulmonary Infections54 Questions
Exam 23: Obstructive Lung Disease: Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases57 Questions
Exam 24: Interstitial Lung Disease54 Questions
Exam 25: Pleural Diseases48 Questions
Exam 26: Pulmonary Vascular Disease60 Questions
Exam 27: Acute Lung Injury, Pulmonary Edema, and Multiple System Organ32 Questions
Exam 28: Lung Cancer30 Questions
Exam 29: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall32 Questions
Exam 30: Disorders of Sleep31 Questions
Exam 31: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders88 Questions
Exam 32: Airway Pharmacology76 Questions
Exam 33: Airway Management119 Questions
Exam 34: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support74 Questions
Exam 35: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy112 Questions
Exam 36: Aerosol Drug Therapy123 Questions
Exam 37: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases80 Questions
Exam 38: Medical Gas Therapy97 Questions
Exam 39: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 40: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy97 Questions
Exam 41: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support50 Questions
Exam 42: Mechanical Ventilators80 Questions
Exam 43: Physiology of Ventilatory Support90 Questions
Exam 44: Initiating and Adjusting Ventilatory Support103 Questions
Exam 45: Noninvasive Positive Pressure Ventilation50 Questions
Exam 46: Monitoring and Management of the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit55 Questions
Exam 47: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support66 Questions
Exam 48: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care37 Questions
Exam 49: Patient Education and Health Promotion19 Questions
Exam 50: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation65 Questions
Exam 51: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings138 Questions
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What is the problem with input flows greater than 10 to 15 L/min in an infant Oxy-Hood?
(Multiple Choice)
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A physician orders 40% O2 through an air-entrainment nebulizer for a patient with a minute volume of 12 L/min. What is the minimum nebulizer input flow required to ensure the prescribed FIO2?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the most common complication of hyperbaric oxygen therapy?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the maximum FIO2 expected to be delivered by most air-entrainment masks?
(Multiple Choice)
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During hyperbaric oxygen therapy at 3 ATA, plasma contains about how much dissolved O2?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following are advantages of the nasal cannula as a low-flow O2 delivery system?
I.stability
II.low cost
III.easy application
IV.disposability
(Multiple Choice)
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What does 1 atmospheric pressure absolute (ATA) equal?
I.101 kPa
II.50 psi
III.760 mm Hg
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is FALSE about air-entrainment systems?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following alternatives may increase the FIO2 capabilities of air-entrainment nebulizers?
I. Add open reservoir to expiratory side of T-tube.
II. Connect together two or more nebulizers.
III. Use a commercial dual-flow system.
IV. Add open reservoir to inspiratory side of T-tube.
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is false about multiplace hyperbaric oxygenation chambers?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is an indication for the use of helium-O2 mixtures?
(Multiple Choice)
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Criteria for initiating hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) therapy on an adult patient suspected of suffering from acute carbon monoxide poisoning include all of the following except:
(Multiple Choice)
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What is/are the primary organ system(s) affected by O2 toxicity?
I.central nervous system (CNS)II.lungs
III.kidneys
(Multiple Choice)
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A true high-flow O2 delivery system should provide at least what flow?
(Multiple Choice)
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You can determine that a nasal O2 catheter is properly positioned when its tip is where?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following signs and symptoms are associated with the presence of hypoxemia?
I.tachypnea
II.tachycardia
III.cyanosis
IV.bradycardia
(Multiple Choice)
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To ensure a stable FIO2 under varying patient demands, what must an O2 delivery system do?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following are components of a typical O2 blender?
I.precision metering device or mixture control
II.audible dual low-pressure alarm system
III.pressure regulating and equalizing valves
IV.variable-size air-entrainment port
(Multiple Choice)
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A physician orders 2 L/min O2 through a simple mask to a 33-year-old postoperative woman with moderate hypoxemia breathing room air (PaO2 = 52 mm Hg). What would be the correct action at this time?
(Multiple Choice)
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Clogging of an isolette incubator air inlet filter will result in which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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