Exam 33: Airway Management
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care28 Questions
Exam 2: Quality and Evidence-Based Respiratory Care29 Questions
Exam 3: Patient Safety, Communication, and Record Keeping52 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Control32 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice36 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care89 Questions
Exam 7: Computer Applications in Respiratory Care26 Questions
Exam 8: The Respiratory System131 Questions
Exam 9: The Cardiovascular System65 Questions
Exam 10: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 11: Gas Exchange and Transport85 Questions
Exam 12: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes95 Questions
Exam 13: Acid-Base Balance97 Questions
Exam 14: Regulation of Breathing48 Questions
Exam 15: Bedside Assessment of the Patient95 Questions
Exam 16: Interpretation of Clinical Laboratory Data30 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram34 Questions
Exam 18: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange125 Questions
Exam 19: Pulmonary Function Testing67 Questions
Exam 20: A Review of Thoracic Imaging46 Questions
Exam 21: Nutrition Assessment42 Questions
Exam 22: Pulmonary Infections54 Questions
Exam 23: Obstructive Lung Disease: Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases57 Questions
Exam 24: Interstitial Lung Disease54 Questions
Exam 25: Pleural Diseases48 Questions
Exam 26: Pulmonary Vascular Disease60 Questions
Exam 27: Acute Lung Injury, Pulmonary Edema, and Multiple System Organ32 Questions
Exam 28: Lung Cancer30 Questions
Exam 29: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall32 Questions
Exam 30: Disorders of Sleep31 Questions
Exam 31: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders88 Questions
Exam 32: Airway Pharmacology76 Questions
Exam 33: Airway Management119 Questions
Exam 34: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support74 Questions
Exam 35: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy112 Questions
Exam 36: Aerosol Drug Therapy123 Questions
Exam 37: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases80 Questions
Exam 38: Medical Gas Therapy97 Questions
Exam 39: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 40: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy97 Questions
Exam 41: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support50 Questions
Exam 42: Mechanical Ventilators80 Questions
Exam 43: Physiology of Ventilatory Support90 Questions
Exam 44: Initiating and Adjusting Ventilatory Support103 Questions
Exam 45: Noninvasive Positive Pressure Ventilation50 Questions
Exam 46: Monitoring and Management of the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit55 Questions
Exam 47: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support66 Questions
Exam 48: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care37 Questions
Exam 49: Patient Education and Health Promotion19 Questions
Exam 50: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation65 Questions
Exam 51: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings138 Questions
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You are about to suction a female patient who has an 8-mm (internal diameter) endotracheal tube in place. What is the maximum size of catheter you would use in this case?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient exhibits persistent stridor after a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure. Which of the following would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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What should be the maximum time devoted to any intubation attempt?
(Multiple Choice)
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All of the following indicate an inability to adequately protect the airway except:
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the purpose of a cuff on an artificial tracheal airway?
(Multiple Choice)
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An adult man on ventilatory support has just been intubated with a 7-mm oral endotracheal tube equipped with a high-residual-volume, low-pressure cuff. When sealing the cuff to achieve a minimal occluding volume, you note a cuff pressure of 45 cm H2O. What is most likely the problem?
(Multiple Choice)
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To provide local anesthesia and vasoconstriction during nasal intubation, what would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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You have been asked to monitor a patient who has just been extubated. Which of the following parameters would you monitor?
I.color
II.breath sounds
III.vital signs
IV.inspiratory force
(Multiple Choice)
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An adult patient receiving cool mist therapy after extubation begins to develop stridor. Which of the following actions would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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The removable inner cannula commonly incorporated into modern tracheostomy tubes serves which of the following purposes?
I.aid in routine tube cleaning and tracheostomy care
II.prevent the tube from slipping into the trachea
III.provide a patent airway should it become obstructed
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following techniques may be used to diagnose injury associated with artificial airways?
I.laryngoscopy or bronchoscopy
II.physical examination
III.air tomography
IV.pulmonary function studies
(Multiple Choice)
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A physician has requested your assistance in extubating an orally intubated patient. Which of the following should be done before the tube itself is removed?
I. Suction the orolaryngopharynx.
II. Preoxygenate the patient.
III. Suction the endotracheal tube.
IV. Confirm cuff inflation.
(Multiple Choice)
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When checking for proper placement of an endotracheal tube or a tracheostomy tube on a chest radiograph, how far above the carina should the distal tip of the tube be positioned?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following approaches may be used in "weaning" a patient from a tracheostomy tube?
I.using progressively smaller tubes
II.using a fenestrated tube
III.using a tracheostomy button
(Multiple Choice)
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Complications of fiberoptic bronchoscopy include all of the following except:
(Multiple Choice)
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After repeated nasotracheal suctioning over 2 days, a patient with retained secretions develops minor bleeding through the nose. Which of the following actions would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following statements are FALSE about methods used to displace the epiglottis during oral intubation?
(Multiple Choice)
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Serious complications of oral intubation include which of the following?
I.cardiac arrest
II.acute hypoxemia
III.bradycardia
IV.tongue lacerations
(Multiple Choice)
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