Exam 33: Airway Management
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care28 Questions
Exam 2: Quality and Evidence-Based Respiratory Care29 Questions
Exam 3: Patient Safety, Communication, and Record Keeping52 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Control32 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice36 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care89 Questions
Exam 7: Computer Applications in Respiratory Care26 Questions
Exam 8: The Respiratory System131 Questions
Exam 9: The Cardiovascular System65 Questions
Exam 10: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 11: Gas Exchange and Transport85 Questions
Exam 12: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes95 Questions
Exam 13: Acid-Base Balance97 Questions
Exam 14: Regulation of Breathing48 Questions
Exam 15: Bedside Assessment of the Patient95 Questions
Exam 16: Interpretation of Clinical Laboratory Data30 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram34 Questions
Exam 18: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange125 Questions
Exam 19: Pulmonary Function Testing67 Questions
Exam 20: A Review of Thoracic Imaging46 Questions
Exam 21: Nutrition Assessment42 Questions
Exam 22: Pulmonary Infections54 Questions
Exam 23: Obstructive Lung Disease: Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases57 Questions
Exam 24: Interstitial Lung Disease54 Questions
Exam 25: Pleural Diseases48 Questions
Exam 26: Pulmonary Vascular Disease60 Questions
Exam 27: Acute Lung Injury, Pulmonary Edema, and Multiple System Organ32 Questions
Exam 28: Lung Cancer30 Questions
Exam 29: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall32 Questions
Exam 30: Disorders of Sleep31 Questions
Exam 31: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders88 Questions
Exam 32: Airway Pharmacology76 Questions
Exam 33: Airway Management119 Questions
Exam 34: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support74 Questions
Exam 35: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy112 Questions
Exam 36: Aerosol Drug Therapy123 Questions
Exam 37: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases80 Questions
Exam 38: Medical Gas Therapy97 Questions
Exam 39: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 40: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy97 Questions
Exam 41: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support50 Questions
Exam 42: Mechanical Ventilators80 Questions
Exam 43: Physiology of Ventilatory Support90 Questions
Exam 44: Initiating and Adjusting Ventilatory Support103 Questions
Exam 45: Noninvasive Positive Pressure Ventilation50 Questions
Exam 46: Monitoring and Management of the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit55 Questions
Exam 47: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support66 Questions
Exam 48: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care37 Questions
Exam 49: Patient Education and Health Promotion19 Questions
Exam 50: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation65 Questions
Exam 51: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings138 Questions
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All of the following indicate that a patient being considered for extubation can provide adequate clearance of pulmonary secretions except:
(Multiple Choice)
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(78)
Which of the following equipment would you gather before assisting in extubation of a patient?
I.suctioning apparatus
II.oxygen or aerosol therapy equipment
III.manual resuscitator and mask
IV.nebulizer with racemic epinephrine
V.intubation tray
(Multiple Choice)
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(80)
Which of the following equipment is NOT needed to perform nasotracheal suctioning?
(Multiple Choice)
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In a properly performed traditional surgical tracheotomy, entrance to the trachea is made through an incision in what area?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following bedside methods can absolutely confirm proper endotracheal tube position in the trachea?
(Multiple Choice)
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You are assisting a physician in the emergency care of a patient with a maxillofacial injury who will require short-term ventilatory support. Which of the following airway approaches would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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Soon after endotracheal tube extubation, an adult patient exhibits a high-pitched inspiratory noise, heard without a stethoscope. Which of the following actions would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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To prevent hypoxemia when suctioning a patient, the respiratory care practitioner should initially do which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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For which of the following purposes is a tracheal button appropriate?
I.facilitate secretion removal
II.protect the airways from aspiration
III.relieve airway obstruction
IV.aid in positive-pressure ventilation
(Multiple Choice)
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Tracheal stenosis occurs in as many as 1 in 10 patients after prolonged tracheostomy. At what sites does this stenosis usually occur?
I.cuff site
II.tip of the tube
III.stoma site
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the maximum recommended range for tracheal tube cuff pressures?
(Multiple Choice)
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A physician is concerned about the potential for tracheal damage due to tube movement in a patient who recently underwent tracheotomy and is now receiving 40% oxygen through a T-tube (Briggs adapter). Which of the following would be the best way to limit tube movement in this patient?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following can help to minimize the likelihood of mucosal trauma during suctioning?
I. Use as large a catheter as possible.
II. Rotate the catheter while withdrawing.
III. Use as rigid a catheter as possible.
IV. Limit the amount of negative pressure.
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following statements is false about the potential for aspiration in patient with cuffed tracheal tubes?
(Multiple Choice)
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During fiberoptic bronchoscopy, a patient receiving intravenous fentanyl exhibits signs of respiratory depression. Which of the following would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient with a tracheal airway exhibits severe respiratory distress. On quick examination, you notice the complete absence of breath sounds and no gas flowing through the airway. What is most likely the problem?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the most common sign associated with the transient glottic edema or vocal cord inflammation that follows extubation?
(Multiple Choice)
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To make oral intubation easier, how should the patient's head and neck be positioned?
(Multiple Choice)
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