Exam 33: Airway Management
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care28 Questions
Exam 2: Quality and Evidence-Based Respiratory Care29 Questions
Exam 3: Patient Safety, Communication, and Record Keeping52 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Control32 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice36 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care89 Questions
Exam 7: Computer Applications in Respiratory Care26 Questions
Exam 8: The Respiratory System131 Questions
Exam 9: The Cardiovascular System65 Questions
Exam 10: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 11: Gas Exchange and Transport85 Questions
Exam 12: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes95 Questions
Exam 13: Acid-Base Balance97 Questions
Exam 14: Regulation of Breathing48 Questions
Exam 15: Bedside Assessment of the Patient95 Questions
Exam 16: Interpretation of Clinical Laboratory Data30 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram34 Questions
Exam 18: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange125 Questions
Exam 19: Pulmonary Function Testing67 Questions
Exam 20: A Review of Thoracic Imaging46 Questions
Exam 21: Nutrition Assessment42 Questions
Exam 22: Pulmonary Infections54 Questions
Exam 23: Obstructive Lung Disease: Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases57 Questions
Exam 24: Interstitial Lung Disease54 Questions
Exam 25: Pleural Diseases48 Questions
Exam 26: Pulmonary Vascular Disease60 Questions
Exam 27: Acute Lung Injury, Pulmonary Edema, and Multiple System Organ32 Questions
Exam 28: Lung Cancer30 Questions
Exam 29: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall32 Questions
Exam 30: Disorders of Sleep31 Questions
Exam 31: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders88 Questions
Exam 32: Airway Pharmacology76 Questions
Exam 33: Airway Management119 Questions
Exam 34: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support74 Questions
Exam 35: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy112 Questions
Exam 36: Aerosol Drug Therapy123 Questions
Exam 37: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases80 Questions
Exam 38: Medical Gas Therapy97 Questions
Exam 39: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 40: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy97 Questions
Exam 41: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support50 Questions
Exam 42: Mechanical Ventilators80 Questions
Exam 43: Physiology of Ventilatory Support90 Questions
Exam 44: Initiating and Adjusting Ventilatory Support103 Questions
Exam 45: Noninvasive Positive Pressure Ventilation50 Questions
Exam 46: Monitoring and Management of the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit55 Questions
Exam 47: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support66 Questions
Exam 48: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care37 Questions
Exam 49: Patient Education and Health Promotion19 Questions
Exam 50: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation65 Questions
Exam 51: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings138 Questions
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Which of the following methods can help to reduce the likelihood of atelectasis due to tracheal suctioning?
I. Limit the amount of negative pressure used.
II. Hyperinflate the patient before and after the procedure.
III. Suction for as short a period of time as possible.
(Multiple Choice)
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In which of the following conditions should fiberoptic bronchoscopy NOT be performed if the risks outweigh the potential benefits?
I.uncorrected bleeding disorders
II.presence of lung abscess
III.refractory hypoxemia
IV.unstable hemodynamic status
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the average depth of proper nasal endotracheal tube insertion in adult men?
(Multiple Choice)
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Although different techniques are used to actually remove the endotracheal tube during an extubation procedure, all aim to ensure which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient with a tracheal airway exhibits signs of tube obstruction. Which of the following are possible causes of this obstruction?
I. The tube cuff has herniated over the tip of the tube.
II. The tube is obstructed by a mucus plug or secretions.
III. The tube is kinked, or the patient is biting the tube.
IV. The tube orifice is impinging on the tracheal wall.
(Multiple Choice)
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What is a rare but serious complication associated with endotracheal tube extubation?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is false about cuff inflation techniques (MOV = minimal occluding volume; MLT = minimal leak technique)?
(Multiple Choice)
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Compared with traditional surgical tracheostomy, all of the following are TRUE about percutaneous dilatational tracheostomy except:
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following factors should be considered when deciding to change from an endotracheal tube to a tracheostomy tube?
I.patient's tolerance of the endotracheal tube
II.relative risks of continued intubation versus tracheostomy
III.patient's severity of illness and overall condition
IV.length of time that the patient will need an artificial airway
V.patient's ability to tolerate a surgical procedure
(Multiple Choice)
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When using capnometry or colorimetry to differentiate esophageal from tracheal placement of an endotracheal tube, which of the following conditions can result in a false-negative finding (i.e., no CO2 present even when the tube is in the trachea)?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following conditions require emergency tracheal intubation?
I.upper airway or laryngeal edema
II.loss of protective reflexes
III.cardiopulmonary arrest
IV.traumatic upper airway obstruction
(Multiple Choice)
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Compared with translaryngeal intubation, the advantages of tracheostomy include all of the following except:
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient with a tracheostomy tube is receiving positive-pressure ventilation through a volume ventilator. Over the past 5 minutes, the peak inspiratory pressure has risen, and the pressure limit alarm is now sounding. On quick examination, you notice a generalized decreased in breath sounds. Which of the following problems is most likely?
(Multiple Choice)
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Ideally, the distal tip of a properly positioned endotracheal tube (in an adult man) should be positioned about how far above the carina?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following injuries are NOT seen with tracheostomy tubes?
I.tracheomalacia
II.tracheal stenosis
III.glottic edema
IV.vocal cord granulomas
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient receiving mechanical ventilatory support accidentally displaces the endotracheal tube out of the trachea. What would be the most appropriate action at this time?
(Multiple Choice)
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To ensure adequate humidification for a patient with an artificial airway, inspired gas at the proximal airway should be 100% saturated with water vapor and at which of the following temperatures?
(Multiple Choice)
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To maintain positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) and high FIO2 when suctioning a mechanically ventilated patient, what would you recommend?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following features incorporated into most modern endotracheal tubes assist in verifying proper tube placement?
I.length markings on the curved body of the tube
II.imbedded radiopaque indicator near the tube tip
III.additional side port (Murphy eye) near the tube tip
(Multiple Choice)
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