Question 1

What MHC Class encodes complement components?

Accepted Answer

A)  Class I 
B)  Class II 
C)  Class III 
D)  All of the above 
A)  Class I 
B)  Class II 
C)  Class III 
D)  All of the above

Question 2

Why is EDTA not conducive to complement activation?

Accepted Answer

A)  Antigens are destroyed 
B)  Antibodies are neutralized 
C)  Calcium is inactivated 
D)  It dilutes plasma 
A)  Antigens are destroyed 
B)  Antibodies are neutralized 
C)  Calcium is inactivated 
D)  It dilutes plasma

Question 3

All of the following are characteristics of a secondary immune response except:

Accepted Answer

A)  quickly formed antibodies. 
B)  higher avidity for antigen. 
C)  higher dose of antigen required to form antibodies. 
D)  lower dose of antigen required to form antibodies. 
A)  quickly formed antibodies. 
B)  higher avidity for antigen. 
C)  higher dose of antigen required to form antibodies. 
D)  lower dose of antigen required to form antibodies.

Question 4

An immunogenic substance that reacts with an antibody is:

Accepted Answer

A)  immunoglobulin. 
B)  antigen. 
C)  chromogen. 
D)  agglutinin. 
A)  immunoglobulin. 
B)  antigen. 
C)  chromogen. 
D)  agglutinin.

Question 5

What test is used to remove autoantibodies from test serum?

Accepted Answer

A)  Adsorption 
B)  Direct Coombs' 
C)  Elution 
D)  Indirect Coombs' 
A)  Adsorption 
B)  Direct Coombs' 
C)  Elution 
D)  Indirect Coombs'

Question 6

What is a possible explanation for a weak reaction (1+) in a reverse ABO grouping test?

Accepted Answer

A)  Elderly patient 
B)  Immunocompromised patient 
C)  IgM deficiency 
D)  All of the above 
A)  Elderly patient 
B)  Immunocompromised patient 
C)  IgM deficiency 
D)  All of the above

Question 7

Only 5% of Kell-negative individuals will develop antibodies to Kell if exposed to the Kell antigen, whereas 50% to 70% of Rh(D)-negative individuals would produce antibodies to D upon exposure. What is the reason for this?

Accepted Answer

A)  Difference in ABO type 
B)  Difference in immunogenicity 
C)  Phenotype 
D)  All of the above 
A)  Difference in ABO type 
B)  Difference in immunogenicity 
C)  Phenotype 
D)  All of the above

Question 8

All of the following are functions performed by the complement system except:

Accepted Answer

A)  direct lysis of bacteria. 
B)  promotion of phagocytosis. 
C)  decreased vascular permeability. 
D)  smooth muscle contraction. 
A)  direct lysis of bacteria. 
B)  promotion of phagocytosis. 
C)  decreased vascular permeability. 
D)  smooth muscle contraction.

Question 9

HLA proteins are coded by what complex?

Accepted Answer

A)  Major histocompatibility complex 
B)  Human leukocyte compatibility complex 
C)  Complement 
D)  Innate immune response 
A)  Major histocompatibility complex 
B)  Human leukocyte compatibility complex 
C)  Complement 
D)  Innate immune response

Question 10

Which of the following statements is not true?

Accepted Answer

A)  T-cell receptors do not recognize foreign antigen on their own like B cells do. 
B)  Major histocompatibility complex (MH
C)  molecules are cell membrane proteins. 
C)  MHC molecules are required for T cells to recognize foreign antigens. 
D)  MHC molecules are required for B cells to recognize foreign antigens. 
A)  T-cell receptors do not recognize foreign antigen on their own like B cells do. 
B)  Major histocompatibility complex (MH
C)  molecules are cell membrane proteins. 
C)  MHC molecules are required for T cells to recognize foreign antigens. 
D)  MHC molecules are required for B cells to recognize foreign antigens.

Question 11

The immune response that consists of physical barriers, biochemical effectors, and immune cells is the immune response.

Accepted Answer

A)  auto- 
B)  innate 
C)  localized 
D)  primary 
A)  auto- 
B)  innate 
C)  localized 
D)  primary

Question 12

Which of the following blood group systems is not likely to cause HDN?

Accepted Answer

A)  Kell 
B)  ABO 
C)  MN 
D)  Rh 
A)  Kell 
B)  ABO 
C)  MN 
D)  Rh

Question 13

When antigen and antibody combine, they are held together by noncovalent forces. With the absence of a visible lattice, this stage is called .

Accepted Answer

A)  adhesion 
B)  sensitization 
C)  agglutination 
D)  inhibition 
A)  adhesion 
B)  sensitization 
C)  agglutination 
D)  inhibition

Question 14

At what temperature do IgM antibodies react?

Accepted Answer

A)  22°C 
B)  37°C 
C)  56°C 
D)  42°C 
A)  22°C 
B)  37°C 
C)  56°C 
D)  42°C

Question 15

What is the equivalent of Factor D (alternative pathway) in the classic complement pathway?

Accepted Answer

A)  C1q 
B)  C1s 
C)  C1r 
D)  C4 
A)  C1q 
B)  C1s 
C)  C1r 
D)  C4

Question 16

Which of the following are produced after exposure to genetically different nonself antigens of the same species?

Accepted Answer

A)  Alloantibodies 
B)  Autoantibodies 
C)  Drug-induced antibodies 
D)  All of the above 
A)  Alloantibodies 
B)  Autoantibodies 
C)  Drug-induced antibodies 
D)  All of the above

Question 17

Why is low ionic strength solution (LISS) used in blood banking?

Accepted Answer

A)  It reduces the incubation time. 
B)  It reduces the net negative surface charge on the RBC. 
C)  It increases the zeta potential. 
D)  It enhances aggregation. 
A)  It reduces the incubation time. 
B)  It reduces the net negative surface charge on the RBC. 
C)  It increases the zeta potential. 
D)  It enhances aggregation.

Question 18

At what temperature do IgG antibodies react optimally?

Accepted Answer

A)  22°C 
B)  37°C 
C)  56°C 
D)  4°C 
A)  22°C 
B)  37°C 
C)  56°C 
D)  4°C

Question 19

What are the principle receptors for the FC portion of immunoglobulin and the CR1 complement component, respectively?

Accepted Answer

A)  IgM, C3b 
B)  IgG, C3b 
C)  IgG, C3d 
D)  IgM, C3d 
A)  IgM, C3b 
B)  IgG, C3b 
C)  IgG, C3d 
D)  IgM, C3d

Question 20

Which of the following antibodies is considered the most significant in blood banking because it reacts at body temperature?

Accepted Answer

A)  IgG 
B)  IgM 
C)  IgA 
D)  IgE 
A)  IgG 
B)  IgM 
C)  IgA 
D)  IgE

Exam 3: Fundamentals of Immunology

What MHC Class encodes complement components?

Why is EDTA not conducive to complement activation?

All of the following are characteristics of a secondary immune response except:

An immunogenic substance that reacts with an antibody is:

What test is used to remove autoantibodies from test serum?

What is a possible explanation for a weak reaction (1+) in a reverse ABO grouping test?

Only 5% of Kell-negative individuals will develop antibodies to Kell if exposed to the Kell antigen, whereas 50% to 70% of Rh(D)-negative individuals would produce antibodies to D upon exposure. What is the reason for this?

All of the following are functions performed by the complement system except:

HLA proteins are coded by what complex?

Which of the following statements is not true?

The immune response that consists of physical barriers, biochemical effectors, and immune cells is the immune response.

Which of the following blood group systems is not likely to cause HDN?

When antigen and antibody combine, they are held together by noncovalent forces. With the absence of a visible lattice, this stage is called .

At what temperature do IgM antibodies react?

What is the equivalent of Factor D (alternative pathway) in the classic complement pathway?

Which of the following are produced after exposure to genetically different nonself antigens of the same species?

Why is low ionic strength solution (LISS) used in blood banking?

At what temperature do IgG antibodies react optimally?

What are the principle receptors for the FC portion of immunoglobulin and the CR1 complement component, respectively?

Which of the following antibodies is considered the most significant in blood banking because it reacts at body temperature?

Red Blood Cells and Platelet Preservation: Historical Perspectives and Current Trends

Basic Genetics

Concepts in Molecular Biology

The Antiglobulin Test

The Abo Blood Group System

The Rh Blood Group System

Blood Group Terminology and Common Blood Groups

Uncommon Blood Groups

Detection and Identification of Antibodies

Pre-Transfusion Testing

Blood Bank Technologies and Automation

Donor Selection

Transfusion-Transmitted Diseases

Component Preparation

Transfusion Therapy

Adverse Effects of Blood Transfusion

Apheresis

Cellular Therapy in the Transplant Setting

Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemias

Tissue Banking As Part of the Transfusion Service

The Hla System

Relationship Testing

Quality Management

Patient Blood Management

Transfusion Safety and Federal Regulatory Requirements

Laboratory Information Systems in the Blood Bank

Medicolegal and Ethical Aspects of Providing Blood Collection and Transfusion Services

Filters