Exam 22: Neonatal Pulmonary Disorders
Exam 1: Fetal Lung Development8 Questions
Exam 2: Fetal Gas Exchange and Circulation9 Questions
Exam 3: Antenatal Assessment and High-Risk Delivery23 Questions
Exam 4: Examination and Assessment of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient33 Questions
Exam 5: Pulmonary Function Testing and Bedside Pulmonary Mechanics19 Questions
Exam 6: Radiographic Assessment20 Questions
Exam 7: Pediatric Flexible Bronchoscopy20 Questions
Exam 8: Invasive Blood Gas Analysis and Cardiovascular Monitoring21 Questions
Exam 9: Noninvasive Monitoring in Neonatal and Pediatric Care16 Questions
Exam 10: Oxygen Administration17 Questions
Exam 11: Aerosols and Administration of Inhaled Medications23 Questions
Exam 12: Airway Clearance Techniques and Hyperinflation Therapy18 Questions
Exam 13: Airway Management26 Questions
Exam 14: Surfactant Replacement Therapy14 Questions
Exam 15: Noninvasive Mechanical Ventilation and Continuous Positive Pressure of the Neonate20 Questions
Exam 16: Noninvasive Mechanical Ventilation of the Infant and Child21 Questions
Exam 17: Invasive Mechanical Ventilation of the Neonate and Pediatric Patient28 Questions
Exam 18: Administration of Gas Mixtures22 Questions
Exam 19: Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation26 Questions
Exam 20: Pharmacology20 Questions
Exam 21: Thoracic Organ Transplantation18 Questions
Exam 22: Neonatal Pulmonary Disorders28 Questions
Exam 23: Surgical Disorders in Childhood That Affect Respiratory Care20 Questions
Exam 24: Congenital Cardiac Defects24 Questions
Exam 25: Pediatric Sleep-Disordered Breathing17 Questions
Exam 26: Pediatric Airway Disorders and Parenchymal Lung Diseases25 Questions
Exam 27: Asthma22 Questions
Exam 28: Cystic Fibrosis19 Questions
Exam 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome19 Questions
Exam 30: Shock20 Questions
Exam 31: Pediatric Trauma33 Questions
Exam 32: Disorders of the Pleura14 Questions
Exam 33: Neurological and Neuromuscular Disorders16 Questions
Exam 34: Transport of Infants and Children14 Questions
Exam 35: Home Care16 Questions
Exam 36: Quality and Safety12 Questions
Select questions type
How should the therapist interpret a lecithin-to-sphingomyelin (L:S) ratio of 2:1?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
A
What radiographic features is the therapist likely to see on a typical chest X-ray of an infant with MAS?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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(82)
Correct Answer:
D
How should the therapist interpret the lack of supernatant foam appearing during the shake test?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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(87)
Correct Answer:
C
The therapist is reviewing the chest radiograph of a newborn, preterm infant and observes diffuse, fine, reticulogranular densities, which provide a ground-glass appearance. On the basis of these radiographic findings, which of the following conditions should the therapist suspect is present?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following therapeutic interventions is generally needed to treat transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)?
(Multiple Choice)
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The therapist is contemplating the possibility of intubating and suctioning a nonvigorous newborn with MAS. Which of the following clinical parameters confirms the indication for the procedure?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the greatest risk factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is the most common bacteria isolated in preterm infants?
(Multiple Choice)
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A neonate diagnosed with a pneumothorax was treated with a chest tube. After 36 hours, the therapist noticed that bubbling is present in the chest tube system. What should the therapist do at this time?
(Multiple Choice)
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While reviewing the chest X-ray of a newborn recently delivered via cesarean section, the therapist observes the following features:
Pulmonary vascular congestion
Prominent perihilar streaking
Fluid in the interlobular fissures
Hyperexpansion
Flat diaphragm
Which of the following conditions does this patient likely have?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following medications should the therapist recommend for an infant with apnea of prematurity experiencing episodes of apnea?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following blood gas parameters should the therapist target when managing patients with PPHN on mechanical ventilation?
I. Preductal SpO2 maintained between 90% and 99%
II. PaCO2 40 to 50 mm Hg
III. pH 7.35 to 7.45
IV. PaO2 >95 mm Hg
(Multiple Choice)
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What ventilator settings should a therapist select for a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome?
I. PIP 25 to 30 cm H2O
II. PEEP 4 to 6 cm H2O
III. VT 5 to 6 mL/kg
IV. Frequency 20 to 40 breaths per minute
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following are considered mechanical ventilation strategies used for infants with pulmonary hemorrhage?
(Multiple Choice)
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When should a therapist consider CPAP for a newborn with respiratory distress?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following risk factors contribute to the pathogenesis of BPD?
I. Lung immaturity
II. Respiratory failure
III. Oxygen supplementation
IV. Positive-pressure ventilation
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the significance of an infant with RDS demonstrating a grunt during each exhalation?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is the most common bacteria isolated in early-onset infection in term and near-term infants?
(Multiple Choice)
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Blood samples are simultaneously obtained from both the right radial artery and the umbilical artery, and the arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) value from the right radial artery is 20 mm Hg greater than that analyzed from the umbilical artery sample. On the basis of this finding, which of the following conditions does the neonate likely have?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the typical type of airway obstruction that occurs with MAS?
(Multiple Choice)
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