Question 1

What can cause a false-positive IgM serologic test?

Accepted Answer

A)  The presence of IgG antibodies 
B)  The presence of rheumatoid factors 
C)  The presence of Rh factor 
D)  The presence of cytomegalovirus (CMV) antibodies 
A)  The presence of IgG antibodies 
B)  The presence of rheumatoid factors 
C)  The presence of Rh factor 
D)  The presence of cytomegalovirus (CMV) antibodies

Question 2

What test is used to diagnose an Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection?

Accepted Answer

A)  ASO 
B)  EBV antibody 
C)  Heterophile antibody 
D)  Cold agglutinin 
A)  ASO 
B)  EBV antibody 
C)  Heterophile antibody 
D)  Cold agglutinin

Question 3

All of the following controls must accompany the patient specimens in a latex agglutination test for antigen detection, except

Accepted Answer

A)  positive antigen control. 
B)  negative antigen control. 
C)  latex suspension control. 
D)  positive antibody control. 
A)  positive antigen control. 
B)  negative antigen control. 
C)  latex suspension control. 
D)  positive antibody control.

Question 4

What test principle uses microbial antigens that are attached to erythrocytes after chemical treatment of the cells that promotes cross-linking of the antigens?

Accepted Answer

A)  Indirect hemagglutination (IH
A)  
B)  Enzyme immunoassay (EI
A)  
C)  Complement fixation (CF) 
D)  Latex agglutination (L
A)  
A)  Indirect hemagglutination (IH
A)  
B)  Enzyme immunoassay (EI
A)  
C)  Complement fixation (CF) 
D)  Latex agglutination (L
A)

Question 5

What are the benefits of using membranes to perform enzyme immunoassay (EIA) reactions?

Accepted Answer

A)  They improve specificity and signal strength. 
B)  They enhance speed and signal strength. 
C)  They enhance speed and sensitivity. 
D)  They improve specificity and sensitivity. 
A)  They improve specificity and signal strength. 
B)  They enhance speed and signal strength. 
C)  They enhance speed and sensitivity. 
D)  They improve specificity and sensitivity.

Question 6

Prozone occurs

Accepted Answer

A)  when the relative concentration of an antibody exceeds the concentration of an antigen. 
B)  when the relative concentration of an antigen exceeds the concentration of an antigen. 
C)  when there are interfering substances in the specimen. 
D)  in the equivalence zone. 
A)  when the relative concentration of an antibody exceeds the concentration of an antigen. 
B)  when the relative concentration of an antigen exceeds the concentration of an antigen. 
C)  when there are interfering substances in the specimen. 
D)  in the equivalence zone.

Question 7

Antibodies for many antigens can be passively acquired in

Accepted Answer

A)  vaccinations. 
B)  flu shots. 
C)  intravenous immunoglobulin therapy. 
D)  All of the above 
A)  vaccinations. 
B)  flu shots. 
C)  intravenous immunoglobulin therapy. 
D)  All of the above

Question 8

What is one of the most popular methods for physical removal of IgG?

Accepted Answer

A)  Miniature ion-exchange chromatography columns 
B)  Thin-layer chromatography 
C)  High-performance liquid chromatography (HPL
C)  
D)  Mass spectroscopy 
A)  Miniature ion-exchange chromatography columns 
B)  Thin-layer chromatography 
C)  High-performance liquid chromatography (HPL
C)  
D)  Mass spectroscopy

Question 9

Heterophile antibodies are

Accepted Answer

A)  antibodies produced in response to one antigen. 
B)  antibodies that must be cleared through the thymus before going into circulation. 
C)  antibodies produced in response to one molecule that also react against an antigen from another species. 
D)  antibodies produced by T cells. 
A)  antibodies produced in response to one antigen. 
B)  antibodies that must be cleared through the thymus before going into circulation. 
C)  antibodies produced in response to one molecule that also react against an antigen from another species. 
D)  antibodies produced by T cells.

Question 10

What is one of the biggest uses for Western blot tests in the laboratory today?

Accepted Answer

A)  Confirming antibodies to HIV 
B)  Confirming antibodies to cytomegalovirus (CMV) 
C)  Confirming antibodies to rubella 
D)  DNA sequencing from herpes 
A)  Confirming antibodies to HIV 
B)  Confirming antibodies to cytomegalovirus (CMV) 
C)  Confirming antibodies to rubella 
D)  DNA sequencing from herpes

Question 11

Serologic tests can help epidemiologists

Accepted Answer

A)  determine if people in a particular area are immune to an infectious agent. 
B)  identify people that need to get immunizations. 
C)  identify children that need to get immunizations. 
D)  determine how widespread an infectious agent is in a given area. 
A)  determine if people in a particular area are immune to an infectious agent. 
B)  identify people that need to get immunizations. 
C)  identify children that need to get immunizations. 
D)  determine how widespread an infectious agent is in a given area.

Question 12

What is the earliest serologic marker detected in hepatitis B?

Accepted Answer

A)  HAV 
B)  HBsAg 
C)  HBcAg 
D)  HBeAg 
A)  HAV 
B)  HBsAg 
C)  HBcAg 
D)  HBeAg

Question 13

What is the difference between dot blots and Western blots? In dot blot testing

Accepted Answer

A)  proteins are blotted to specific areas. 
B)  proteins are purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface. 
C)  DNA is purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface. 
D)  RNA is purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface. 
A)  proteins are blotted to specific areas. 
B)  proteins are purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface. 
C)  DNA is purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface. 
D)  RNA is purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface.

Question 14

A monoclonal antibody is

Accepted Answer

A)  an antibody that is derived from one cell, exposed to many epitopes. 
B)  an antibody that is derived from many cells, exposed to one epitope. 
C)  an antibody that is derived from one cell and exposed to no epitopes. 
D)  an antibody that is derived from one cell initially, which has been exposed to one epitope. 
A)  an antibody that is derived from one cell, exposed to many epitopes. 
B)  an antibody that is derived from many cells, exposed to one epitope. 
C)  an antibody that is derived from one cell and exposed to no epitopes. 
D)  an antibody that is derived from one cell initially, which has been exposed to one epitope.

Question 15

Indirect agglutination is also referred to as

Accepted Answer

A)  passive agglutination. 
B)  incomplete agglutination. 
C)  active agglutination. 
D)  flocculation. 
A)  passive agglutination. 
B)  incomplete agglutination. 
C)  active agglutination. 
D)  flocculation.

Question 16

Avidity means the antibodies have

Accepted Answer

A)  strong binding kinetics to specific antigens. 
B)  weak binding kinetics to specific antigens. 
C)  strong binding kinetics to specific antibodies. 
D)  weak binding kinetics to specific antibodies. 
A)  strong binding kinetics to specific antigens. 
B)  weak binding kinetics to specific antigens. 
C)  strong binding kinetics to specific antibodies. 
D)  weak binding kinetics to specific antibodies.

Question 17

All of the following are hepatitis antibodies, except

Accepted Answer

A)  EBNA. 
B)  HBsAg. 
C)  HBcAg. 
D)  HBeAg. 
A)  EBNA. 
B)  HBsAg. 
C)  HBcAg. 
D)  HBeAg.

Question 18

Which test is a confirmatory test of enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) HIV?

Accepted Answer

A)  Enzyme immunoassay (EI
A)  
B)  Northern blot 
C)  Southern blot 
D)  Western blot 
A)  Enzyme immunoassay (EI
A)  
B)  Northern blot 
C)  Southern blot 
D)  Western blot

Question 19

A significant rise in IgG detected during the convalescent phase is diagnostic for infection and is called

Accepted Answer

A)  serologic adaptation. 
B)  convalescence. 
C)  seroconversion. 
D)  acute phase reactant. 
A)  serologic adaptation. 
B)  convalescence. 
C)  seroconversion. 
D)  acute phase reactant.

Question 20

What is the principle of the flocculation test?

Accepted Answer

A)  The antigen is incorporated into the agar and the test wells hold the antibody. The antibody and antigen combine at a specific concentration and produce a zone of equivalence. 
B)  Antibodies are mixed with a labeled antigen, and a sandwich reaction occurs. 
C)  Antibodies and antigens combine then precipitate out of a solution to the bottom of the tube. 
D)  The antigen-antibody reaction forms a macroscopically visible clump that remains in solution. 
A)  The antigen is incorporated into the agar and the test wells hold the antibody. The antibody and antigen combine at a specific concentration and produce a zone of equivalence. 
B)  Antibodies are mixed with a labeled antigen, and a sandwich reaction occurs. 
C)  Antibodies and antigens combine then precipitate out of a solution to the bottom of the tube. 
D)  The antigen-antibody reaction forms a macroscopically visible clump that remains in solution.

Exam 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases

What can cause a false-positive IgM serologic test?

What test is used to diagnose an Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection?

All of the following controls must accompany the patient specimens in a latex agglutination test for antigen detection, except

What test principle uses microbial antigens that are attached to erythrocytes after chemical treatment of the cells that promotes cross-linking of the antigens?

What are the benefits of using membranes to perform enzyme immunoassay (EIA) reactions?

Prozone occurs

Antibodies for many antigens can be passively acquired in

What is one of the most popular methods for physical removal of IgG?

Heterophile antibodies are

What is one of the biggest uses for Western blot tests in the laboratory today?

Serologic tests can help epidemiologists

What is the earliest serologic marker detected in hepatitis B?

What is the difference between dot blots and Western blots? In dot blot testing

A monoclonal antibody is

Indirect agglutination is also referred to as

Avidity means the antibodies have

All of the following are hepatitis antibodies, except

Which test is a confirmatory test of enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) HIV?

A significant rise in IgG detected during the convalescent phase is diagnostic for infection and is called

What is the principle of the flocculation test?

Bacterial Cell Structure, Physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics

Hostparasite Interaction

The Laboratory Role in Infection Control

Control of Microorganisms

Performance Improvement in the Microbiology Laboratory

Specimen Collection and Processing

Microscopic Examination of Materials From Infected Sites

Use of Colony Morphology for the Presumptive Identification of Microorganisms

Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria

Applications of Molecular Diagnostics

Antimicrobial Agent Mechanisms of Action and Resistance Mechanisms

Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing

Staphylococci

Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Other Catalase-Negative, Gram-Positive Cocci

Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli

Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis

Haemophilus, Hacek, Legionella, and Other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli

Enterobacteriaceae

Vibrio, Aeromonas, and Campylobacter Species

Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous Gram-Negative Bacilli

Anaerobes of Clinical Importance

The Spirochetes

Chlamydia, Rickettsia, and Similar Organisms

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Nontuberculous Mycobacteria

Medically Significant Fungi

Diagnostic Parasitology

Clinical Virology

Agents of Bioterror and Forensic Microbiology

Biofilms: Architects of Disease

Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections

Skin and Soft Tissue Infections

Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning

Infections of the Central Nervous System

Bacteremia and Sepsis

Urinary Tract Infections

Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Infections

Infections in Special Populations

Zoonotic Diseases

Ocular Infections

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