Exam 32: Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections
Exam 1: Bacterial Cell Structure, Physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics47 Questions
Exam 2: Hostparasite Interaction39 Questions
Exam 3: The Laboratory Role in Infection Control29 Questions
Exam 4: Control of Microorganisms56 Questions
Exam 5: Performance Improvement in the Microbiology Laboratory38 Questions
Exam 6: Specimen Collection and Processing57 Questions
Exam 7: Microscopic Examination of Materials From Infected Sites24 Questions
Exam 8: Use of Colony Morphology for the Presumptive Identification of Microorganisms30 Questions
Exam 9: Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria50 Questions
Exam 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases44 Questions
Exam 11: Applications of Molecular Diagnostics49 Questions
Exam 12: Antimicrobial Agent Mechanisms of Action and Resistance Mechanisms43 Questions
Exam 13: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing83 Questions
Exam 14: Staphylococci35 Questions
Exam 15: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Other Catalase-Negative, Gram-Positive Cocci40 Questions
Exam 16: Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli44 Questions
Exam 17: Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis31 Questions
Exam 18: Haemophilus, Hacek, Legionella, and Other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli33 Questions
Exam 19: Enterobacteriaceae33 Questions
Exam 20: Vibrio, Aeromonas, and Campylobacter Species27 Questions
Exam 21: Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous Gram-Negative Bacilli28 Questions
Exam 22: Anaerobes of Clinical Importance37 Questions
Exam 23: The Spirochetes26 Questions
Exam 24: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, and Similar Organisms24 Questions
Exam 25: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma20 Questions
Exam 26: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Nontuberculous Mycobacteria34 Questions
Exam 27: Medically Significant Fungi26 Questions
Exam 28: Diagnostic Parasitology21 Questions
Exam 29: Clinical Virology48 Questions
Exam 30: Agents of Bioterror and Forensic Microbiology27 Questions
Exam 31: Biofilms: Architects of Disease27 Questions
Exam 32: Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections32 Questions
Exam 33: Skin and Soft Tissue Infections30 Questions
Exam 34: Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning34 Questions
Exam 35: Infections of the Central Nervous System26 Questions
Exam 36: Bacteremia and Sepsis32 Questions
Exam 37: Urinary Tract Infections30 Questions
Exam 38: Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Infections26 Questions
Exam 39: Infections in Special Populations20 Questions
Exam 40: Zoonotic Diseases22 Questions
Exam 41: Ocular Infections23 Questions
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What does the presence of -hemolytic colonies on a throat culture indicate?
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(Multiple Choice)
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Why do most physicians treat otitis media empirically?
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(Multiple Choice)
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D
What is the most common complication of pertussis?
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B
A patient's normal pharyngeal biota can be altered by all of the following, except
(Multiple Choice)
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Elements of the respiratory tract that can help prevent infection include
(Multiple Choice)
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What should a microbiologist do if he or she finds -hemolytic colonies on a properly collected sputum specimen on a patient suspected of having lobar pneumonia?
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What is helpful when initiating empiric antimicrobial therapy?
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How is acute bronchitis differentiated from acute pneumonia?
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What is the cause of reduced clearance of respiratory secretions that predisposes people to respiratory infections?
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What is the most common localized infection of the upper respiratory tract in preschool-age patients?
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What organism is the most common opportunistic pathogen that routinely infects patients with HIV/AIDS?
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What organisms are most frequently isolated from cultures of individuals with otitis media?
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What is the specimen of choice for recovery of Bordetella pertussis?
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What are the two most frequently identified bacterial causes of community-acquired sinusitis?
(Multiple Choice)
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All of the following are complications of acute sinusitis, except
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What usually causes community-acquired pneumonias in children during the winter months?
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