Question 1

What is used as the indicator in a complement fixation (CF) test?

Accepted Answer

A)  Latex particles 
B)  Horse red blood cells 
C)  Rabbit red blood cells 
D)  Sheep red blood cells 
A)  Latex particles 
B)  Horse red blood cells 
C)  Rabbit red blood cells 
D)  Sheep red blood cells D

Question 2

If a baby were exposed to hepatitis A in utero, what type of antibodies would be produced?

Accepted Answer

A)  IgD 
B)  IgE 
C)  IgG 
D)  IgM 
A)  IgD 
B)  IgE 
C)  IgG 
D)  IgM D

Question 3

Confirmatory tests for syphilis include all the following, except

Accepted Answer

A)  FTA-ABS. 
B)  TP-PA. 
C)  RPR. 
D)  MHA-TP. 
A)  FTA-ABS. 
B)  TP-PA. 
C)  RPR. 
D)  MHA-TP. C

Question 4

Which organism can cause hospitalization in young children and is detected using fluorescent antibodies?

Accepted Answer

A)  Haemophilus 
B)  Klebsiella 
C)  Streptococcus 
D)  Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) 
A)  Haemophilus 
B)  Klebsiella 
C)  Streptococcus 
D)  Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

Question 5

What is ASO used for?

Accepted Answer

A)  To demonstrate serologic response to streptococcal antigen 
B)  To determine if a strep has been lysogenized 
C)  To determine if a strep produces a hemolysin 
D)  To demonstrate serologic response to Streptococcus pyogenes 
A)  To demonstrate serologic response to streptococcal antigen 
B)  To determine if a strep has been lysogenized 
C)  To determine if a strep produces a hemolysin 
D)  To demonstrate serologic response to Streptococcus pyogenes

Question 6

What patients are highly susceptible to cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections?

Accepted Answer

A)  Immunosuppressed 
B)  Immunocompetent 
C)  Males 
D)  Females 
A)  Immunosuppressed 
B)  Immunocompetent 
C)  Males 
D)  Females

Question 7

When a person is exposed to an antigen for a second time, what type of response is mounted?

Accepted Answer

A)  Anamnestic 
B)  Tertiary 
C)  Full blown 
D)  Allergic 
A)  Anamnestic 
B)  Tertiary 
C)  Full blown 
D)  Allergic

Question 8

All of the following are antigens present in a hepatitis B infection, except

Accepted Answer

A)  HBsAg. 
B)  HBcAg. 
C)  HBeAg. 
D)  VCNA. 
A)  HBsAg. 
B)  HBcAg. 
C)  HBeAg. 
D)  VCNA.

Question 9

A direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) test involves

Accepted Answer

A)  an antigen-specific labeled antibody. 
B)  an antibody-specific labeled antigen. 
C)  a bioluminescent label. 
D)  None of the above 
A)  an antigen-specific labeled antibody. 
B)  an antibody-specific labeled antigen. 
C)  a bioluminescent label. 
D)  None of the above

Question 10

What is one of the most widely used applications of the direct antigen test?

Accepted Answer

A)  HIV in saliva 
B)  Group A strep in throat swabs 
C)  Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in urine 
D)  Cytomegalovirus (CMV) in hair follicles 
A)  HIV in saliva 
B)  Group A strep in throat swabs 
C)  Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in urine 
D)  Cytomegalovirus (CMV) in hair follicles

Question 11

Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) differs from immunofluorescent tests by

Accepted Answer

A)  using a different fluorescent label. 
B)  using enzymes and a chromogenic substrate. 
C)  being valid for direct testing only. 
D)  All of the above 
A)  using a different fluorescent label. 
B)  using enzymes and a chromogenic substrate. 
C)  being valid for direct testing only. 
D)  All of the above

Question 12

A false-negative test may be caused by all the following immune system-mediated reasons, except

Accepted Answer

A)  allergic reaction. 
B)  no immune response. 
C)  immunodeficiency disease. 
D)  immunosuppression. 
A)  allergic reaction. 
B)  no immune response. 
C)  immunodeficiency disease. 
D)  immunosuppression.

Question 13

Mary went out to eat shellfish last week and is now beginning to feel lethargic. Her urine is tea-colored, and she generally feels bad all over. She recognizes these symptoms and thinks she may have hepatitis A because she got hepatitis last year when she vacationed at the beach. If a physician were to perform a test for hepatitis A antibodies, what class of antibodies would the physician find?

Accepted Answer

A)  IgM 
B)  IgE 
C)  IgG 
D)  IgD 
A)  IgM 
B)  IgE 
C)  IgG 
D)  IgD

Question 14

What tests are performed on newborns to detect congenital infections?

Accepted Answer

A)  TORCH 
B)  TWAR 
C)  CMV 
D)  HIV 
A)  TORCH 
B)  TWAR 
C)  CMV 
D)  HIV

Question 15

The advantages of latex agglutination include all the following, except

Accepted Answer

A)  availability of good quality reagents in complete kit form. 
B)  good sensitivity. 
C)  ease of performance. 
D)  cost of reagents. 
A)  availability of good quality reagents in complete kit form. 
B)  good sensitivity. 
C)  ease of performance. 
D)  cost of reagents.

Question 16

What is the principle of direct antigen testing?

Accepted Answer

A)  A clinical specimen is mixed with an antigen, then a labeled antibody is added. If the antigen is present, a complex will form. 
B)  It is a process by which microbial antigens are identified in patient specimens by combining specifically with antibody molecules to form stable complexes. 
C)  A fluorescent antigen is added to a specimen, then an antibody to form sandwich complexes. 
D)  Labeled antigen is added to a specimen, and the specimen is read for fluorescence. 
A)  A clinical specimen is mixed with an antigen, then a labeled antibody is added. If the antigen is present, a complex will form. 
B)  It is a process by which microbial antigens are identified in patient specimens by combining specifically with antibody molecules to form stable complexes. 
C)  A fluorescent antigen is added to a specimen, then an antibody to form sandwich complexes. 
D)  Labeled antigen is added to a specimen, and the specimen is read for fluorescence.

Question 17

All of the following are congenital defects produced by rubella, except

Accepted Answer

A)  deafness. 
B)  blindness. 
C)  cataracts. 
D)  congenital heart disease. 
A)  deafness. 
B)  blindness. 
C)  cataracts. 
D)  congenital heart disease.

Question 18

How can one determine if a person has had a previous illness with an organism?

Accepted Answer

A)  Perform acute and convalescent IgM levels. 
B)  Perform acute and convalescent IgG levels. 
C)  Perform an IgM level 1 week after the symptoms start. 
D)  Perform an IgG level 1 week after the symptoms start. 
A)  Perform acute and convalescent IgM levels. 
B)  Perform acute and convalescent IgG levels. 
C)  Perform an IgM level 1 week after the symptoms start. 
D)  Perform an IgG level 1 week after the symptoms start.

Question 19

John goes to his physician complaining of a high fever (38.2° C [102° F]), muscle aches, cough, and a headache. These symptoms came on suddenly, and his physician thinks John may have the flu. What kind of antibody is his body producing against the virus?

Accepted Answer

A)  IgG 
B)  IgM 
C)  IgE 
D)  IgD 
A)  IgG 
B)  IgM 
C)  IgE 
D)  IgD

Question 20

When the antigen-binding sites on the antibody molecule react with specific epitopes and not with other antigens containing different epitopes, this is antibody molecule is displaying

Accepted Answer

A)  high sensitivity. 
B)  high specificity. 
C)  low specificity. 
D)  low sensitivity. 
A)  high sensitivity. 
B)  high specificity. 
C)  low specificity. 
D)  low sensitivity.

Exam 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases

What is used as the indicator in a complement fixation (CF) test?

If a baby were exposed to hepatitis A in utero, what type of antibodies would be produced?

Confirmatory tests for syphilis include all the following, except

Which organism can cause hospitalization in young children and is detected using fluorescent antibodies?

What is ASO used for?

What patients are highly susceptible to cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections?

When a person is exposed to an antigen for a second time, what type of response is mounted?

All of the following are antigens present in a hepatitis B infection, except

A direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) test involves

What is one of the most widely used applications of the direct antigen test?

Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) differs from immunofluorescent tests by

A false-negative test may be caused by all the following immune system-mediated reasons, except

What tests are performed on newborns to detect congenital infections?

The advantages of latex agglutination include all the following, except

What is the principle of direct antigen testing?

All of the following are congenital defects produced by rubella, except

How can one determine if a person has had a previous illness with an organism?

John goes to his physician complaining of a high fever (38.2° C [102° F]), muscle aches, cough, and a headache. These symptoms came on suddenly, and his physician thinks John may have the flu. What kind of antibody is his body producing against the virus?

When the antigen-binding sites on the antibody molecule react with specific epitopes and not with other antigens containing different epitopes, this is antibody molecule is displaying

Bacterial Cell Structure, Physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics

Hostparasite Interaction

The Laboratory Role in Infection Control

Control of Microorganisms

Performance Improvement in the Microbiology Laboratory

Specimen Collection and Processing

Microscopic Examination of Materials From Infected Sites

Use of Colony Morphology for the Presumptive Identification of Microorganisms

Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria

Applications of Molecular Diagnostics

Antimicrobial Agent Mechanisms of Action and Resistance Mechanisms

Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing

Staphylococci

Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Other Catalase-Negative, Gram-Positive Cocci

Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli

Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis

Haemophilus, Hacek, Legionella, and Other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli

Enterobacteriaceae

Vibrio, Aeromonas, and Campylobacter Species

Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous Gram-Negative Bacilli

Anaerobes of Clinical Importance

The Spirochetes

Chlamydia, Rickettsia, and Similar Organisms

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Nontuberculous Mycobacteria

Medically Significant Fungi

Diagnostic Parasitology

Clinical Virology

Agents of Bioterror and Forensic Microbiology

Biofilms: Architects of Disease

Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections

Skin and Soft Tissue Infections

Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning

Infections of the Central Nervous System

Bacteremia and Sepsis

Urinary Tract Infections

Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Infections

Infections in Special Populations

Zoonotic Diseases

Ocular Infections

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