Question 1

What is the difference between dot blots and Western blots?

Accepted Answer

A)  Proteins are blotted to specific areas. 
B)  Proteins are purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface. 
C)  DNA is purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface. 
D)  RNA is purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface. 
A)  Proteins are blotted to specific areas. 
B)  Proteins are purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface. 
C)  DNA is purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface. 
D)  RNA is purified and directly blotted to specific locations on the solid surface.

Question 2

Which organism can cause hospitalization in young kids and is detected using fluorescent antibodies?

Accepted Answer

A)  Bordetella 
B)  Klebsiella 
C)  Streptococcus 
D)  Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) 
A)  Bordetella 
B)  Klebsiella 
C)  Streptococcus 
D)  Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

Question 3

A false-negative serologic test is defined as a:

Accepted Answer

A)  Positive result for someone who is not infected 
B)  Negative result for someone who does not have the disease 
C)  Positive result for someone who does have the disease 
D)  Negative result for a patient who really is infected 
A)  Positive result for someone who is not infected 
B)  Negative result for someone who does not have the disease 
C)  Positive result for someone who does have the disease 
D)  Negative result for a patient who really is infected

Question 4

What is the advantage of using an indirect sandwich assay for EIA?

Accepted Answer

A)  One enzyme conjugated anti-immune antibody can be used for several tests. 
B)  It is much more specific than direct sandwich EIA. 
C)  It is much more sensitive than direct sandwich EIA. 
D)  The lower detection limit is superior to any other EIA test. 
A)  One enzyme conjugated anti-immune antibody can be used for several tests. 
B)  It is much more specific than direct sandwich EIA. 
C)  It is much more sensitive than direct sandwich EIA. 
D)  The lower detection limit is superior to any other EIA test.

Question 5

What are the benefits of using membranes to perform enzyme immunoassay (EIA)reactions?

Accepted Answer

A)  They improve specificity and signal strength. 
B)  They enhance speed and signal strength. 
C)  They enhance speed and sensitivity. 
D)  They improve specificity and sensitivity. 
A)  They improve specificity and signal strength. 
B)  They enhance speed and signal strength. 
C)  They enhance speed and sensitivity. 
D)  They improve specificity and sensitivity.

Question 6

A significant rise in IgG detected during the convalescent phase is diagnostic for infection and is called:

Accepted Answer

A)  Serologic adaptation 
B)  Convalescence 
C)  Seroconversion 
D)  Acute phase reactant 
A)  Serologic adaptation 
B)  Convalescence 
C)  Seroconversion 
D)  Acute phase reactant

Question 7

Mary went out to eat shellfish last week and is beginning to feel lethargic,her urine is tea-colored,and she generally feels bad all over.She recognizes these symptoms and thinks she may have hepatitis A because she got hepatitis last year when she vacationed at the beach.If a physician were to perform a test for hepatitis A antibodies,what class of antibodies would the physician find?

Accepted Answer

A)  IgM 
B)  IgE 
C)  IgG 
D)  IgD 
A)  IgM 
B)  IgE 
C)  IgG 
D)  IgD

Question 8

A direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)test involves:

Accepted Answer

A)  Antigen-specific labeled antibody 
B)  Antibody-specific labeled antigen 
C)  Bioluminescent label 
D)  None of the above 
A)  Antigen-specific labeled antibody 
B)  Antibody-specific labeled antigen 
C)  Bioluminescent label 
D)  None of the above

Question 9

Avidity means the antibodies have:

Accepted Answer

A)  Strong binding kinetics to specific antigens 
B)  Weak binding kinetics to specific antigens 
C)  Strong binding kinetics to specific antibodies 
D)  Weak binding kinetics to specific antibodies 
A)  Strong binding kinetics to specific antigens 
B)  Weak binding kinetics to specific antigens 
C)  Strong binding kinetics to specific antibodies 
D)  Weak binding kinetics to specific antibodies

Question 10

What is one of the most widely used applications of the direct antigen test?

Accepted Answer

A)  HIV in saliva 
B)  Group A strep in throat swabs 
C)  Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in urine 
D)  Cytomegalovirus (CMV) in hair follicles 
A)  HIV in saliva 
B)  Group A strep in throat swabs 
C)  Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in urine 
D)  Cytomegalovirus (CMV) in hair follicles

Question 11

A monoclonal antibody is:

Accepted Answer

A)  An antibody that is derived from one cell, exposed to many epitopes 
B)  An antibody that is derived from many cells, exposed to one epitope 
C)  An antibody that is derived from one cell and exposed to no epitopes 
D)  An antibody that is derived from one cell initially, which has been exposed to one epitope 
A)  An antibody that is derived from one cell, exposed to many epitopes 
B)  An antibody that is derived from many cells, exposed to one epitope 
C)  An antibody that is derived from one cell and exposed to no epitopes 
D)  An antibody that is derived from one cell initially, which has been exposed to one epitope

Question 12

Confirmatory tests for syphilis include all the following EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

A)  FTA-ABS 
B)  TP-PA 
C)  RPR 
D)  MHA-TP 
A)  FTA-ABS 
B)  TP-PA 
C)  RPR 
D)  MHA-TP

Question 13

What is one of the most popular methods for physical removal of IgG?

Accepted Answer

A)  Miniature ion-exchange chromatography columns 
B)  Thin-layer chromatography 
C)  High-performance liquid chromatography (HPL
C)  
D)  Mass spectroscopy 
A)  Miniature ion-exchange chromatography columns 
B)  Thin-layer chromatography 
C)  High-performance liquid chromatography (HPL
C)  
D)  Mass spectroscopy

Question 14

How can one determine if a person has had a previous illness with an organism?

Accepted Answer

A)  Perform acute and convalescent IgM levels. 
B)  Perform acute and convalescent IgG levels. 
C)  Perform an IgM level 1 week after the symptoms start. 
D)  Perform an IgG level 1 week after the symptoms start. 
A)  Perform acute and convalescent IgM levels. 
B)  Perform acute and convalescent IgG levels. 
C)  Perform an IgM level 1 week after the symptoms start. 
D)  Perform an IgG level 1 week after the symptoms start.

Question 15

All of the following are hepatitis antibodies EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

A)  EBNA 
B)  HBsAb 
C)  HBcAb 
D)  HBeAb 
A)  EBNA 
B)  HBsAb 
C)  HBcAb 
D)  HBeAb

Question 16

Which hepatitis virus is spread by the fecal/oral route?

Accepted Answer

A)  Hepatitis B 
B)  Hepatitis A 
C)  Hepatitis C 
D)  Hepatitis D 
A)  Hepatitis B 
B)  Hepatitis A 
C)  Hepatitis C 
D)  Hepatitis D

Question 17

What test principle uses microbial antigens that are attached to erythrocytes after chemical treatment of the cells that promotes cross-linking of the antigens?

Accepted Answer

A)  Indirect hemagglutination (IH
A)  
B)  Enzyme immunoassay (EI
A)  
C)  Complement fixation (CF) 
D)  Latex agglutination (L
A)  
A)  Indirect hemagglutination (IH
A)  
B)  Enzyme immunoassay (EI
A)  
C)  Complement fixation (CF) 
D)  Latex agglutination (L
A)

Question 18

What is the principle of the flocculation test?

Accepted Answer

A)  The antigen is incorporated into the agar and the test wells hold the antibody. The antibody and antigen combine at a specific concentration and produce a zone of equivalence. 
B)  Antibodies are mixed with labeled antigen, and a sandwich reaction occurs. 
C)  Antibodies and antigens combine then precipitate out of solution to the bottom of the tube. 
D)  The antigen-antibody reaction forms a macroscopically visible clump that remains in solution. 
A)  The antigen is incorporated into the agar and the test wells hold the antibody. The antibody and antigen combine at a specific concentration and produce a zone of equivalence. 
B)  Antibodies are mixed with labeled antigen, and a sandwich reaction occurs. 
C)  Antibodies and antigens combine then precipitate out of solution to the bottom of the tube. 
D)  The antigen-antibody reaction forms a macroscopically visible clump that remains in solution.

Question 19

Antibodies for many antigens can be passively acquired in:

Accepted Answer

A)  Vaccinations 
B)  Flu shots 
C)  Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy 
D)  All of the above 
A)  Vaccinations 
B)  Flu shots 
C)  Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy 
D)  All of the above

Question 20

Which organism is DFA used to detect,despite the test having a low sensitivity (25% to 75%)?

Accepted Answer

A)  Neisseria 
B)  Streptococcus 
C)  Legionella 
D)  Klebsiella 
A)  Neisseria 
B)  Streptococcus 
C)  Legionella 
D)  Klebsiella

Exam 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases

What is the difference between dot blots and Western blots?

Which organism can cause hospitalization in young kids and is detected using fluorescent antibodies?

A false-negative serologic test is defined as a:

What is the advantage of using an indirect sandwich assay for EIA?

What are the benefits of using membranes to perform enzyme immunoassay (EIA)reactions?

A significant rise in IgG detected during the convalescent phase is diagnostic for infection and is called:

A direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)test involves:

Avidity means the antibodies have:

What is one of the most widely used applications of the direct antigen test?

A monoclonal antibody is:

Confirmatory tests for syphilis include all the following EXCEPT:

What is one of the most popular methods for physical removal of IgG?

How can one determine if a person has had a previous illness with an organism?

All of the following are hepatitis antibodies EXCEPT:

Which hepatitis virus is spread by the fecal/oral route?

What test principle uses microbial antigens that are attached to erythrocytes after chemical treatment of the cells that promotes cross-linking of the antigens?

What is the principle of the flocculation test?

Antibodies for many antigens can be passively acquired in:

Which organism is DFA used to detect,despite the test having a low sensitivity (25% to 75%)?

Bacterial Cell Structure, physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics

Host-Parasite Interaction

Laboratory Role in Infection Control

Control of Microorganisms

Performance Improvement in the Microbiology Laboratory

Specimen Collection and Processing

Microscopic Examination of Infected Materials

Use of Colonial Morphology for the Presumptive Identification of Microorganisms

Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria

Applications of Molecular Diagnostics

Antibiotic Mechanisms of Action and Resistance

Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing

Staphylococci

Streptococcus, enterococcus, and Other Catalase-Negative Gram-Positive Cocci

Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli

Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis

Haemophilus and Other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli

Enterobacteriaceae

Vibrio,aeromonas,plesiomonas and Campylobacter Species

Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous Gram-Negative Bacilli

Anaerobes of Clinical Importance

Spirochetes

Chlamydia and Rickettsia

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Other Nontuberculosis Mycobacteria

Medically Significant Fungi

Diagnostic Parasitology

Clinical Virology

Agents of Bioterror

Biofilms: Architects of Disease

Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections

Skin and Soft Tissue Infections

Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning

Infections of the Central Nervous System

Bacteremia and Sepsis

Urinary Tract Infections

Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Diseases

Infections in Special Populations

Zoonotic Diseases

Ocular Infections

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