Question 1

Plasmids work well for insertion of foreign DNA into a cell. Which statement is False?

Accepted Answer

A)  Plasmids have an origin of replication. 
B)  Plasmids are relatively small compared with a chromosome. 
C)  Plasmids can replicate independent of the chromosome. 
D)  Plasmids usually contain a selectable marker such as antibiotic resistance. 
E)  All known bacteria contain plasmids of some kind. 
A)  Plasmids have an origin of replication. 
B)  Plasmids are relatively small compared with a chromosome. 
C)  Plasmids can replicate independent of the chromosome. 
D)  Plasmids usually contain a selectable marker such as antibiotic resistance. 
E)  All known bacteria contain plasmids of some kind.

Question 2

Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)

Accepted Answer

A)  uses virus hosts, uses a labeled probe, AND is useful in microbial ecology. 
B)  uses a labeled probe, allows identification of particular bacterial groups in mixed samples, AND uses virus hosts. 
C)  is useful in microbial ecology, allows identification of particular bacterial groups in mixed samples AND depends on electron microscopy. 
D)  uses a labeled probe, is useful in microbial ecology, AND allows identification of particular bacterial groups in mixed samples. 
E)  is useful in microbial ecology, allows identification of particular bacterial groups in mixed samples AND uses virus hosts. 
A)  uses virus hosts, uses a labeled probe, AND is useful in microbial ecology. 
B)  uses a labeled probe, allows identification of particular bacterial groups in mixed samples, AND uses virus hosts. 
C)  is useful in microbial ecology, allows identification of particular bacterial groups in mixed samples AND depends on electron microscopy. 
D)  uses a labeled probe, is useful in microbial ecology, AND allows identification of particular bacterial groups in mixed samples. 
E)  is useful in microbial ecology, allows identification of particular bacterial groups in mixed samples AND uses virus hosts.

Question 3

Genetic engineering

Accepted Answer

A)  allows the use of bacteria as production factories for a number of molecules AND is dependent on RNA enzymes. 
B)  relies on recombinant DNA technology AND relies completely on conjugation. 
C)  allows the use of bacteria as production factories for a number of molecules AND relies completely on conjugation. 
D)  allows the use of bacteria as production factories for a number of molecules AND relies on recombinant DNA technology. 
E)  is dependent on RNA enzymes AND relies on recombinant DNA technology. 
A)  allows the use of bacteria as production factories for a number of molecules AND is dependent on RNA enzymes. 
B)  relies on recombinant DNA technology AND relies completely on conjugation. 
C)  allows the use of bacteria as production factories for a number of molecules AND relies completely on conjugation. 
D)  allows the use of bacteria as production factories for a number of molecules AND relies on recombinant DNA technology. 
E)  is dependent on RNA enzymes AND relies on recombinant DNA technology.

Question 4

Why are primers needed in DNA sequencing?

Accepted Answer

A)  DNA polymerase needs a primer because it can only add nucleotides to an existing nucleotide strand. 
B)  DNA polymerase needs a primer to help it recognize a vector for gene insertion. 
C)  DNA polymerase needs a primer for proofreading and mismatch repair after a gene has been sequenced. 
D)  The primer acts as a template for the dideoxynucleotides and deoxynucleotides. 
E)  All of the answer choices are correct. 
A)  DNA polymerase needs a primer because it can only add nucleotides to an existing nucleotide strand. 
B)  DNA polymerase needs a primer to help it recognize a vector for gene insertion. 
C)  DNA polymerase needs a primer for proofreading and mismatch repair after a gene has been sequenced. 
D)  The primer acts as a template for the dideoxynucleotides and deoxynucleotides. 
E)  All of the answer choices are correct.

Question 5

The primer used in Sanger (dideoxy chain termination) sequencing

Accepted Answer

A)  can have any random nucleotide sequence. 
B)  has a nucleotide sequence complementary to the 5' end or the 3' end of the region to be copied. 
C)  has a nucleotide sequence complementary to the 5' end of the region to be copied. 
D)  must have a sequence beginning and ending with the same nucleotide. 
E)  has a nucleotide sequence complementary to the 3' end of the region to be copied. 
A)  can have any random nucleotide sequence. 
B)  has a nucleotide sequence complementary to the 5' end or the 3' end of the region to be copied. 
C)  has a nucleotide sequence complementary to the 5' end of the region to be copied. 
D)  must have a sequence beginning and ending with the same nucleotide. 
E)  has a nucleotide sequence complementary to the 3' end of the region to be copied.

Question 6

A DNA microarray contains oligonucleotides that contain a label.

Accepted Answer

A) True 
 B)False

Question 7

Selecting for transformants involves

Accepted Answer

A)  identifying organisms that have taken up recombinant DNA. 
B)  identifying organisms that have taken up recombinant RNA. 
C)  identifying organisms that are producing proteins. 
D)  identifying organisms that are producing DNA. 
E)  identifying organisms that are producing antibiotics. 
A)  identifying organisms that have taken up recombinant DNA. 
B)  identifying organisms that have taken up recombinant RNA. 
C)  identifying organisms that are producing proteins. 
D)  identifying organisms that are producing DNA. 
E)  identifying organisms that are producing antibiotics.

Question 8

Sexually transmitted human papillomavirus (HPV) strains are among the most common of the sexually transmitted infection (STI) agents. Some HPV strains (low risk) cause papillomas—warty growths of the external and internal genitalia. Other strains (high risk) cause lesions of mucosal surfaces and are more problematic—approximately 15 of these strains are strongly associated with cancer of the cervix, penis, rectum, vagina, or throat. These high-risk strains include HPVs 16, 18, 31, and 45. You have been asked to give a short presentation on HPV and its detection by PCR (the HPV test). Following your presentation, you answer questions from your audience.
-HPV is a non-enveloped, double stranded DNA virus. What are the components of this virus?

Accepted Answer

A)  DNA and protein 
B)  RNA and protein 
C)  DNA, RNA, and protein 
D)  DNA, protein, and phospholipids 
E)  RNA, protein, and phospholipids 
A)  DNA and protein 
B)  RNA and protein 
C)  DNA, RNA, and protein 
D)  DNA, protein, and phospholipids 
E)  RNA, protein, and phospholipids

Question 9

A graduate student wants to clone a particular gene into a plasmid. The sequence includes AluI and BamHI sites on both sides of the desired fragment. AluI cuts symmetrically directly between the G and C nucleotides in a palindromic 5' AGCT 3' sequence. BamHI cuts asymmetrically directly between the G and G nucleotides in a palindromic 5' GGATCC 3' sequence. Which of the two restriction endonucleases should the graduate student choose, and why?

Accepted Answer

A)  BamHI to cut both sides-since this enzyme cuts asymmetrically, it'll leave the sticky, cohesive single-strand DNA ends that will make it easier to ligate into a BamHI-cut plasmid DNA sequence. 
B)  AluI to cut both sides-it's always easier to ligate together blunt ends of DNA. She should also use AluI on the plasmid she wants to put the fragment into. 
C)  BamHI on the fragment, and AluI on the plasmid-this will give her the matching sequences to anneal/ligate together on the fragment/plasmid combination. 
D)  BamHI on one side of the fragment, and AluI on the other side-this would keep the fragment from sticking right back to where it was cut out from in the original DNA. 
E)  Neither of these endonucleases will really be useful; she should look for a single enzyme that creates either blunt ends or sticky ends, depending on the plasmid that she is using as a vector. 
A)  BamHI to cut both sides-since this enzyme cuts asymmetrically, it'll leave the sticky, cohesive single-strand DNA ends that will make it easier to ligate into a BamHI-cut plasmid DNA sequence. 
B)  AluI to cut both sides-it's always easier to ligate together blunt ends of DNA. She should also use AluI on the plasmid she wants to put the fragment into. 
C)  BamHI on the fragment, and AluI on the plasmid-this will give her the matching sequences to anneal/ligate together on the fragment/plasmid combination. 
D)  BamHI on one side of the fragment, and AluI on the other side-this would keep the fragment from sticking right back to where it was cut out from in the original DNA. 
E)  Neither of these endonucleases will really be useful; she should look for a single enzyme that creates either blunt ends or sticky ends, depending on the plasmid that she is using as a vector.

Question 10

The molecule(s) that act as molecular glue to bind DNA fragments together is/are

Accepted Answer

A)  DNAse. 
B)  DNA ligase. 
C)  ligandase. 
D)  polymerase. 
E)  DNAse AND ligandase. 
A)  DNAse. 
B)  DNA ligase. 
C)  ligandase. 
D)  polymerase. 
E)  DNAse AND ligandase.

Question 11

Goal(s) of gene cloning may be to produce

Accepted Answer

A)  a protein. 
B)  many copies of the gene to be used as a probe. 
C)  many copies of the gene for sequencing. 
D)  more copies of the host cell. 
E)  a protein, many copies of the gene to be used as a probe, AND many copies of the gene for sequencing. 
A)  a protein. 
B)  many copies of the gene to be used as a probe. 
C)  many copies of the gene for sequencing. 
D)  more copies of the host cell. 
E)  a protein, many copies of the gene to be used as a probe, AND many copies of the gene for sequencing.

Question 12

PCR is particularly useful in

Accepted Answer

A)  detecting viable yet non-culturable organisms. 
B)  assessing impure (multiple types of bacteria present) samples. 
C)  dealing with very small numbers of bacteria. 
D)  relatively quickly producing results. 
E)  All of the answer choices are correct. 
A)  detecting viable yet non-culturable organisms. 
B)  assessing impure (multiple types of bacteria present) samples. 
C)  dealing with very small numbers of bacteria. 
D)  relatively quickly producing results. 
E)  All of the answer choices are correct.

Question 13

A very common vector is a plasmid.

Accepted Answer

A) True 
 B)False

Question 14

PCR typically results in the generation of fragments of all sizes.

Accepted Answer

A) True 
 B)False

Question 15

Which is the CORRECT definition of PCR?

Accepted Answer

A)  Use of the enzyme reverse transcriptase to generate cDNA from mRNA, and then amplifying the cDNA exponentially using RNA polymerase. 
B)  In vitro process of determining the nucleotide sequence of a DNA molecule using a variety of enzymes. 
C)  In vitro technique used to repeatedly duplicate (amplify) a specific region of a DNA molecule, increasing the number of copies exponentially. 
D)  Procedure in which a fragment of DNA is inserted into a vector and then transferred into another cell, where it then replicates. 
E)  The process in which two complementary strands of DNA from different sources are annealed to create a hybrid double-stranded molecule. 
A)  Use of the enzyme reverse transcriptase to generate cDNA from mRNA, and then amplifying the cDNA exponentially using RNA polymerase. 
B)  In vitro process of determining the nucleotide sequence of a DNA molecule using a variety of enzymes. 
C)  In vitro technique used to repeatedly duplicate (amplify) a specific region of a DNA molecule, increasing the number of copies exponentially. 
D)  Procedure in which a fragment of DNA is inserted into a vector and then transferred into another cell, where it then replicates. 
E)  The process in which two complementary strands of DNA from different sources are annealed to create a hybrid double-stranded molecule.

Question 16

The size of the amplified DNA fragment generated during PCR is determined by

Accepted Answer

A)  how many cycles are performed. 
B)  the size of the template DNA. 
C)  the location to which the primers anneal. 
D)  how much Taq polymerase is used. 
E)  the time for each cycle. 
A)  how many cycles are performed. 
B)  the size of the template DNA. 
C)  the location to which the primers anneal. 
D)  how much Taq polymerase is used. 
E)  the time for each cycle.

Question 17

Agarose gel electrophoresis may be considered as a partial purification technique.

Accepted Answer

A) True 
 B)False

Question 18

Restriction enzymes have proved so useful in manipulating DNA because

Accepted Answer

A)  they cut at defined sites AND the sticky ends make it very easy to allow recombination of DNA with RNA. 
B)  they cut at random sites AND the sticky ends make it very easy to allow recombination of any type of DNA. 
C)  they cut at defined sites AND the sticky ends make it very easy to allow recombination of any type of DNA. 
D)  they protect eukaryotes against virus attack AND they cut both RNA and DNA. 
E)  they protect eukaryotes against virus attack AND the sticky ends make it very easy to allow recombination of DNA with RNA. 
A)  they cut at defined sites AND the sticky ends make it very easy to allow recombination of DNA with RNA. 
B)  they cut at random sites AND the sticky ends make it very easy to allow recombination of any type of DNA. 
C)  they cut at defined sites AND the sticky ends make it very easy to allow recombination of any type of DNA. 
D)  they protect eukaryotes against virus attack AND they cut both RNA and DNA. 
E)  they protect eukaryotes against virus attack AND the sticky ends make it very easy to allow recombination of DNA with RNA.

Question 19

What would the outcome be if you forgot to do the washing step when carrying out FISH on a sample containing bacteria?

Accepted Answer

A)  Nothing. The washing step is recommended but is not necessary and can be omitted. 
B)  Unbound probe would remain on the slide and would fluoresce, making it impossible to see individual cells. 
C)  The unbound probe would anneal strongly to the glass slide in random patterns that would look like bacteria. 
D)  The unbound probe would cause lysis of the target bacterial cells, destroying their nuclei and mitochondria. 
E)  Nothing. Unbound probe will not fluoresce, so even if it is present, it will not affect the results. 
A)  Nothing. The washing step is recommended but is not necessary and can be omitted. 
B)  Unbound probe would remain on the slide and would fluoresce, making it impossible to see individual cells. 
C)  The unbound probe would anneal strongly to the glass slide in random patterns that would look like bacteria. 
D)  The unbound probe would cause lysis of the target bacterial cells, destroying their nuclei and mitochondria. 
E)  Nothing. Unbound probe will not fluoresce, so even if it is present, it will not affect the results.

Question 20

Short tandem repeats (STRs)

Accepted Answer

A)  are useful in identifying specific individuals. 
B)  are important sites in vectors where foreign DNA can be integrated. 
C)  are errors that can arise during DNA sequencing. 
D)  are DNA fragments generated during PCR. 
E)  are generally found in exons. 
A)  are useful in identifying specific individuals. 
B)  are important sites in vectors where foreign DNA can be integrated. 
C)  are errors that can arise during DNA sequencing. 
D)  are DNA fragments generated during PCR. 
E)  are generally found in exons.

Exam 9: Biotechnology

Plasmids work well for insertion of foreign DNA into a cell. Which statement is False?

Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)

Genetic engineering

Why are primers needed in DNA sequencing?

The primer used in Sanger (dideoxy chain termination) sequencing

A DNA microarray contains oligonucleotides that contain a label.

Selecting for transformants involves

The molecule(s) that act as molecular glue to bind DNA fragments together is/are

Goal(s) of gene cloning may be to produce

PCR is particularly useful in

A very common vector is a plasmid.

PCR typically results in the generation of fragments of all sizes.

Which is the CORRECT definition of PCR?

The size of the amplified DNA fragment generated during PCR is determined by

Agarose gel electrophoresis may be considered as a partial purification technique.

Restriction enzymes have proved so useful in manipulating DNA because

What would the outcome be if you forgot to do the washing step when carrying out FISH on a sample containing bacteria?

Short tandem repeats (STRs)

Humans and the Microbial World

The Molecules of Life

Microscopy and Cell Structure

Dynamics of Microbial Growth

Control of Microbial Growth

Microbial Metabolism: Fueling Cell Growth

The Blueprint of Life, from DNA to Protein

Bacterial Genetics

Identifying and Classifying Microorganisms

The Diversity of Bacteria and Archaea

The Eukaryotic Members of the Microbial World

Viruses, Viroids, and Prions

The Innate Immune Response

The Adaptive Immune Response

Host-Microbe Interactions

Immunological Disorders

Applications of Immune Responses

Epidemiology

Antimicrobial Medications

Respiratory System Infections

Skin Infections

Wound Infections

Digestive System Infections

Blood and Lymphatic Infections

Nervous System Infections

Genitourinary Tract Infections

Microbial Ecology

Environmental Microbiology: Treatment of Water, Wastes, and Polluted Habitats

Food Microbiology

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