Exam 31: Diagnostic Microbiology and Immunology
Exam 1: Microorganisms and Microbiology87 Questions
Exam 2: A Brief Journey to the Microbial World91 Questions
Exam 3: Cell Structure and Function in Bacteria and Archaea84 Questions
Exam 4: Nutrition, Culture, and Metabolism of Microorganisms101 Questions
Exam 5: Microbial Growth91 Questions
Exam 6: Molecular Biology of Bacteria84 Questions
Exam 7: Archael and Eukaryotic Molecular Biology85 Questions
Exam 8: Regulation of Gene Expression86 Questions
Exam 9: Viruses and Virology87 Questions
Exam 10: Genetics of Bacteria and Arachaea90 Questions
Exam 11: Genetic Engineering87 Questions
Exam 12: Microbial Genomics86 Questions
Exam 13: Phototrophy, Chemolithotrophy, and Major Biosyntheses85 Questions
Exam 14: Catabolism of Organic Compounds89 Questions
Exam 15: Commercial Products and Biotechnology85 Questions
Exam 16: Microbial Evolution and Systematics86 Questions
Exam 17: Bacteria: the Proteobacteria90 Questions
Exam 18: Other Bacteria86 Questions
Exam 19: Archaea88 Questions
Exam 20: Eukaryotic Cell Biology and Eukaryotic Microorganisms88 Questions
Exam 21: Viral Diversity81 Questions
Exam 22: Methods in Microbial Ecology85 Questions
Exam 23: Major Microbial Habitats and Diversity85 Questions
Exam 24: Nutrient Cycles, Biodegradation, and Bioremediation85 Questions
Exam 25: Microbial Symbioses85 Questions
Exam 26: Microbial Growth Control88 Questions
Exam 27: Microbial Interactions With Humans88 Questions
Exam 28: Immunity and Host Defense89 Questions
Exam 29: Immune Mechanisms85 Questions
Exam 30: Molecular Immunology85 Questions
Exam 31: Diagnostic Microbiology and Immunology89 Questions
Exam 32: Epidemiology89 Questions
Exam 33: Person-To-Person Microbial Diseases89 Questions
Exam 34: Vectorborne and Soilborne Microbial Pathogens86 Questions
Exam 35: Wastewater Treatment, Water Purification, and Waterborne Microbial Diseases92 Questions
Exam 36: Food Preservation and Foodborne Microbial Diseases93 Questions
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The use of selected culture media and incubation conditions to isolate microorganisms from samples is known as a(n) __________ .
(Short Answer)
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_________use genotypic rather than phenotypic factors to identify specific pathogens.
(Short Answer)
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Which component of HAT medium is a cell poison that blocks metabolism?
(Multiple Choice)
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When a fecal sample is collected from an ill patient, how is each of the following identified: bacterial cell, eukaryotic protist, and virus?
(Essay)
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Finding no bacterial growth, despite persistent urinary tract symptoms, indicates that the problem is likely either nonpathogenically physiological or psychosomatic.
(True/False)
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What is the basis for inferring infection of a pathogen when a serological EIA is performed? In this context, what does a positive result indicate?
(Essay)
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Identification of the agents of infection can be made long before primary isolation methods yield a suspected organism when tissues are probed with specific fluorescent antibodies.
(True/False)
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Fluorescent antibodies can be used to separate mixtures of cells into relatively pure populations with a fluorescence cytometer.
(True/False)
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SYBR Green, commonly used in the_________ method, binds nonspecifically to but not_________ or_________.
(Essay)
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The direct EIA is used to detect_________ , whereas the indirect EIA is used to detect_________.
(Short Answer)
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Some infectious agents, such as Neisseria gonorrhoeae, do not elicit a systemic immune response.
(True/False)
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Use specific examples to describe the difference between a differential and a selective medium.
(Essay)
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Obligate anaerobic bacteria are often missed as the causal agents of infection in clinical diagnosis. Why is this so? Describe one method commonly used to culture these bacteria.
(Essay)
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The most common of all nosocomial infections are_________infections.
(Multiple Choice)
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The causal agents of urinary tract diseases are often members of the normal flora.
(True/False)
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One problem with the EIA test is the disposal of radioactive wastes.
(True/False)
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