Exam 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
Exam 1: Microbial Taxonomy10 Questions
Exam 2: Bacterial Genetics, Metabolism, and Structure25 Questions
Exam 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions25 Questions
Exam 4: Laboratory Safety25 Questions
Exam 5: Specimen Management20 Questions
Exam 6: Role of Microscopy15 Questions
Exam 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification30 Questions
Exam 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for Microbial Identification and Characterization15 Questions
Exam 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism Detection10 Questions
Exam 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases20 Questions
Exam 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action and Resistance15 Questions
Exam 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing20 Questions
Exam 13: Staphylococcus Micrococcus and Similar Organisms15 Questions
Exam 14: Streptococcus Enterococcus and Similar Organisms20 Questions
Exam 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 16: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 17: Erysipelothrix Lactobacillus and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 18: Nocardia Streptomyces Rhodococcus and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 19: Enterobacteriaceae20 Questions
Exam 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms10 Questions
Exam 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 22: Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 23: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 24: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis, Comamonas, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Chromobacterium, and Related Organisms20 Questions
Exam 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms5 Questions
Exam 27: Moraxella and Related Organisms10 Questions
Exam 28: Eikenella and Similar Organisms5 Questions
Exam 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms5 Questions
Exam 30: Actinobacillus, Aggregatibacter, Kingella, Cardiobacterium, Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 31: Haemophilus20 Questions
Exam 32: Bartonella and Afipia5 Questions
Exam 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter10 Questions
Exam 34: Legionella5 Questions
Exam 35: Brucella5 Questions
Exam 36: Bordetella Pertussis, Bordetella Parapertussis, and Related Species10 Questions
Exam 37: Francisella5 Questions
Exam 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum Minus5 Questions
Exam 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis20 Questions
Exam 40: Overview and General Considerations24 Questions
Exam 41: Overview of Anaerobic Organisms25 Questions
Exam 42: Mycobacteria45 Questions
Exam 43: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents10 Questions
Exam 44: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma10 Questions
Exam 45: The Spirochetes24 Questions
Exam 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic Infections: Overview20 Questions
Exam 47: Intestinal Protozoa20 Questions
Exam 48: Blood and Tissue Protozoa22 Questions
Exam 49: Other Protozoa12 Questions
Exam 50: Intestinal Nematodes Roundworms10 Questions
Exam 51: Tissue Nematodes Roundworms8 Questions
Exam 52: Blood and Tissue Filarialnematodes10 Questions
Exam 53: Intestinal Cestodes5 Questions
Exam 54: Tissue Cestodes5 Questions
Exam 55: Intestinal Trematodes5 Questions
Exam 56: Liver and Lung Trematodes8 Questions
Exam 57: Blood Trematodes5 Questions
Exam 58: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies20 Questions
Exam 59: Hyaline Molds, Mucorales Zygomycetes, Dermatophytes, and Opportunitistic and Systemic Mycoses20 Questions
Exam 60: Dematiaceous Melanizedmolds16 Questions
Exam 61: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pneumocystis Jiroveci5 Questions
Exam 62: The Yeasts18 Questions
Exam 63: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, Therapy, and Prevention9 Questions
Exam 64: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology36 Questions
Exam 65: Viruses in Human Disease32 Questions
Exam 66: Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, and Prevention19 Questions
Exam 67: Bloodstream Infections15 Questions
Exam 68: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract14 Questions
Exam 69: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck27 Questions
Exam 70: Meningitis, Encephalitis, and Other Infections of the Central Nervous System12 Questions
Exam 71: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses14 Questions
Exam 72: Infections of the Urinary Tract10 Questions
Exam 73: Genital Tract Infections24 Questions
Exam 74: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections10 Questions
Exam 75: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections13 Questions
Exam 76: Normally Sterile Body Fluids, Bone and Bone Marrow, and Solid Tissues10 Questions
Exam 77: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory14 Questions
Exam 78: Infection Control10 Questions
Exam 79: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism5 Questions
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A positive test was observed on a serum sample that resulted in the formation of a fine precipitate on a reaction card.The most likely organism serologically identified is:
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
C
Specific proteins produced by cells of the immune system in response to the presence of foreign molecules that circulate in the serum and are present in secretions such as saliva are called:
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
B
Cell-mediated immune responses, such as attacking and killing microorganisms or host cells that are damaged or infected, are carried out by:
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
A
A Western blot assay was performed, and bands were observed at p24, p41, and gp120/160 (kilodaltons).The organism can be identified as:
(Multiple Choice)
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A pregnant woman had contact with her nephew who was just diagnosed with a rubella infection.Acute and convalescent samples were taken, which resulted in an acute titer of 1:16 and a convalescent titer of 1:32.Which one of the following comments explains the risk to the fetus?
(Multiple Choice)
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The precipitin test that is widely used for detecting antibodies against fungal infection is referred to as:
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient was suspected of having a rickettsial infection after hiking in the Rocky Mountains.A Weil-Felix test was performed, which resulted in no agglutination observed.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
(Multiple Choice)
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For most pathogens to be diagnostic of current infection, there must be a(n)_____ in the patient's antibody titer of _____ doubling dilutions.
(Multiple Choice)
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The immunochemical test that involves the agglutination of an artificial carrier particle with the antigen bound to its surface and an antibody present in a specimen is referred to as:
(Multiple Choice)
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A method that uses an electrical current to speed up the migration of an antigen and antibody is referred to as:
(Multiple Choice)
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Elevations of which of the following antibodies may indicate a parasitic infection?
(Multiple Choice)
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The study of the diagnosis of disease by measuring antibody levels in serum is called:
(Multiple Choice)
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The difference between latex agglutination and hemagglutination is:
(Multiple Choice)
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The antibody that is predominantly found in tears, saliva, and intestinal secretions is:
(Multiple Choice)
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Antibody-mediated immune responses produced by specific proteins are generated by:
(Multiple Choice)
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The presence of which of the following antibodies usually indicates a recent or an active infection?
(Multiple Choice)
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For an accurate diagnostic of a current infection, acute and convalescent sera should reflect a(n)_____ in the patient's antibody titer of _____ doubling dilutions.
(Multiple Choice)
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