Question 1

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

Accepted Answer

A)  SNMP 
B)  DNS lookup 
C)  syslog 
D)  NTP 
A)  SNMP 
B)  DNS lookup 
C)  syslog 
D)  NTP

Question 2

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Accepted Answer

A)  Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management. 
B)  Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management. 
C)  Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options. 
D)  Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management. 
A)  Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management. 
B)  Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management. 
C)  Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options. 
D)  Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management.

Question 3

Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?

Accepted Answer

A)  The designated port 
B)  The backup port 
C)  The alternate port 
D)  The root port 
A)  The designated port 
B)  The backup port 
C)  The alternate port 
D)  The root port

Question 4

Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A)  All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1. 
B)  R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3. 
C)  A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established. 
D)  The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3. 
E)  EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F) R1 and R3 are configured in different areas. 
A)  All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1. 
B)  R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3. 
C)  A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established. 
D)  The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3. 
E)  EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F) R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

Question 5

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP. All other computers must be able to access the web server. Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes the task?

Accepted Answer

A)    
B)    
C)    
D)    
A)    
B)    
C)    
D)

Question 6

An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

Accepted Answer

A)  switchport mode trunk 
B)  switchport mode dynamic desirable 
C)  switchport nonegotiate 
D)  switchport mode dynamic auto 
A)  switchport mode trunk 
B)  switchport mode dynamic desirable 
C)  switchport nonegotiate 
D)  switchport mode dynamic auto

Question 7

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

Accepted Answer

A)  Its modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization. 
B)  It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment. 
C)  It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode. 
D)  It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration. 
A)  Its modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization. 
B)  It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment. 
C)  It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode. 
D)  It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration.

Question 8

Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded?

Accepted Answer

A)  standby 10 preempt 
B)  standby 10 version 1 
C)  standby 10 priority 150 
D)  standby 10 version 2 
A)  standby 10 preempt 
B)  standby 10 version 1 
C)  standby 10 priority 150 
D)  standby 10 version 2

Question 9

When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?

Accepted Answer

A)  For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth. 
B)  It counts the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the route with the lowest metric. 
C)  It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the exiting interface to calculate the route with the lowest cost. 
D)  It multiplies the active K values by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric. 
A)  For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth. 
B)  It counts the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the route with the lowest metric. 
C)  It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the exiting interface to calculate the route with the lowest cost. 
D)  It multiplies the active K values by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric.

Question 10

Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?

Accepted Answer

A)  WRED 
B)  FIFO 
C)  WFQ 
D)  PQ 
A)  WRED 
B)  FIFO 
C)  WFQ 
D)  PQ

Question 11

Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

A)  FastEthernet0 /0 
B)  FastEthernet0 /1 
C)  Serial0/0 
D)  Serial0/1.102 
E)  Serial0/1.103
F) Serial0/1.104 
A)  FastEthernet0 /0 
B)  FastEthernet0 /1 
C)  Serial0/0 
D)  Serial0/1.102 
E)  Serial0/1.103
F) Serial0/1.104

Question 12

Which description of the Layer 4 traffic Monitor on a Cisco WSA is true?

Accepted Answer

A)  monitors suspicious traffic across all the TCP/UDP ports 
B)  decrypts SSL traffic to monitor for malicious content 
C)  prevents data exfiltration by searching all the network traffic for specified sensitive information 
D)  blocks traffic from URL categories that are known to contain malicious content 
A)  monitors suspicious traffic across all the TCP/UDP ports 
B)  decrypts SSL traffic to monitor for malicious content 
C)  prevents data exfiltration by searching all the network traffic for specified sensitive information 
D)  blocks traffic from URL categories that are known to contain malicious content

Question 13

What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

Accepted Answer

A)  ISATAP 
B)  IPsec over ISATAP 
C)  GRE 
D)  GRE over IPsec 
A)  ISATAP 
B)  IPsec over ISATAP 
C)  GRE 
D)  GRE over IPsec

Question 14

Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A)  Defines the network functions that occur at each layer 
B)  Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network 
C)  Changes in one layer do not impact other layer 
D)  Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach 
A)  Defines the network functions that occur at each layer 
B)  Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network 
C)  Changes in one layer do not impact other layer 
D)  Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach

Question 15

What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A)  exactly one active router 
B)  one or more standby routers 
C)  one or more backup virtual routers 
D)  exactly one standby active router 
E)  exactly one backup virtual router 
A)  exactly one active router 
B)  one or more standby routers 
C)  one or more backup virtual routers 
D)  exactly one standby active router 
E)  exactly one backup virtual router

Question 16

When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?

Accepted Answer

A)  spanning-tree vlan 200 priority 614440 
B)  spanning-tree vlan 200 priority 0 
C)  spanning-tree vlan 200 root primary 
D)  spanning-tree vlan 200 priority 38813258 
A)  spanning-tree vlan 200 priority 614440 
B)  spanning-tree vlan 200 priority 0 
C)  spanning-tree vlan 200 root primary 
D)  spanning-tree vlan 200 priority 38813258

Question 17

Which option is required for inline security group tag propagation?

Accepted Answer

A)  Cisco Secure Access Control System 
B)  hardware support 
C)  Security Group Tag Exchange Protocol (SXP) v4 
D)  Cisco Identity Services Engine 
A)  Cisco Secure Access Control System 
B)  hardware support 
C)  Security Group Tag Exchange Protocol (SXP) v4 
D)  Cisco Identity Services Engine

Question 18

Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?

Accepted Answer

A)  RADIUS 
B)  HTTPS 
C)  TACACS+ 
D)  HTTP 
A)  RADIUS 
B)  HTTPS 
C)  TACACS+ 
D)  HTTP

Question 19

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of VPN is used in the configuration?

Accepted Answer

A)  DMVPN 
B)  FlexVPN 
C)  SSL VPN 
D)  Cisco GET VPN 
A)  DMVPN 
B)  FlexVPN 
C)  SSL VPN 
D)  Cisco GET VPN

Question 20

Refer to the exhibit.   All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A)  Link A - 172.16.3.0/30 
B)  Link A - 172.16.3.112/30 
C)  Network A - 172.16.3.48/26 
D)  Network A - 172.16.3.128/25 
E)  Link A - 172.16.3.40/30
F) Network A -172.16.3.192/26 
A)  Link A - 172.16.3.0/30 
B)  Link A - 172.16.3.112/30 
C)  Network A - 172.16.3.48/26 
D)  Network A - 172.16.3.128/25 
E)  Link A - 172.16.3.40/30
F) Network A -172.16.3.192/26

Exam 4: Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?

Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP. All other computers must be able to access the web server. Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes the task?

An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded?

When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?

Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?

Which description of the Layer 4 traffic Monitor on a Cisco WSA is true?

What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.)

What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)

When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?

Which option is required for inline security group tag propagation?

Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of VPN is used in the configuration?

Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)

Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices (DCTECH)

Cisco Certified Technician Routing & Switching (RSTECH)

Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS)

Managing Industrial Networks with Cisco Networking Technologies (IMINS)

DevNet Associate (DEVASC)

Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR)

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)

Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (ENSDWI)

Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)

Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (300-425 ENWLSD)

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (300-430 ENWLSI)

Automating Cisco Enterprise Solutions (ENAUTO)

Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions (SPRI)

Implementing Cisco Service Provider VPN Services (SPVI)

Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCID)

Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCIT)

Implementing Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure (DCACI)

Configuring Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches (DCSAN)

Implementing Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure - Advanced

Automating Cisco Data Center Solutions (DCAUTO)

Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower (300-710 SNCF)

Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Services Engine (300-715 SISE)

Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (300-720 SESA)

Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (300-725 SWSA)

Implementing Secure Solutions with Virtual Private Networks (SVPN 300-730)

Automating Cisco Security Solutions (SAUTO)

Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications (CLICA)

Implementing Cisco Advanced Call Control and Mobility Services (CLASSM)

Implementing Cisco Collaboration Cloud and Edge Solutions

Implementing Cisco Collaboration Conferencing

Automating Cisco Collaboration Solutions (CLAUTO)

Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices using Cisco Platforms (DEVOPS)

Developing Solutions Using Cisco IoT and Edge Platforms (DEVIOT)

Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)

Performing CyberOps Using Core Security Technologies (CBRCOR)

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)

Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR)

Implementing and Operating Cisco Data Center Core Technologies (DCCOR)

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies

Implementing Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (CLCOR)

Developing Applications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR)

CCDE Design Written

Deploying Cisco Unified Contact Center Express

Cisco Meraki Solutions Specialist

Securing Cisco Networks with Sourcefire FireAMP Endpoints

Designing Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise (UCCED)

Implementing and Supporting Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise (UCCEIS)

Cisco Collaboration SaaS Authorization Exam

Cisco Security Architecture for System Engineers

Adopting The Cisco Business Architecture Approach (DTBAA)

Cisco Customer Success Manager (CSM)

Mastering The Cisco Business Architecture Discipline (DTBAD)

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