Exam 24: Burns
Exam 1: Professional Nursing Practice21 Questions
Exam 2: Health Disparities and Culturally Competent Care18 Questions
Exam 3: Health History and Physical Examination15 Questions
Exam 4: Patient and Caregiver Teaching21 Questions
Exam 5: Chronic Illness and Older Adults21 Questions
Exam 6: Stress and Stress Management12 Questions
Exam 7: Sleep and Sleep Disorders11 Questions
Exam 8: Pain26 Questions
Exam 9: Palliative Care at End of Life16 Questions
Exam 10: Substance Use Disorders25 Questions
Exam 11: Inflammation and Wound Healing22 Questions
Exam 12: Genetics and Genomics7 Questions
Exam 13: Altered Immune Responses and Transplantation26 Questions
Exam 14: Infection and Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection26 Questions
Exam 15: Cancer43 Questions
Exam 16: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances37 Questions
Exam 17: Preoperative Care21 Questions
Exam 18: Intraoperative Care18 Questions
Exam 19: Postoperative Care25 Questions
Exam 20: Assessment of Visual and Auditory Systems25 Questions
Exam 21: Visual and Auditory Problems47 Questions
Exam 22: Assessment of Integumentary System14 Questions
Exam 23: Integumentary Problems25 Questions
Exam 24: Burns31 Questions
Exam 25: Assessment of Respiratory System24 Questions
Exam 26: Upper Respiratory Problems25 Questions
Exam 27: Lower Respiratory Problems51 Questions
Exam 28: Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases44 Questions
Exam 29: Assessment of Hematologic System16 Questions
Exam 30: Hematologic Problems48 Questions
Exam 31: Assessment of Cardiovascular System24 Questions
Exam 32: Hypertension24 Questions
Exam 33: Coronary Artery Disease and Acute Coronary Syndrome43 Questions
Exam 34: Heart Failure25 Questions
Exam 35: Dysrhythmias31 Questions
Exam 36: Inflammatory and Structural Heart Disorders35 Questions
Exam 37: Vascular Disorders36 Questions
Exam 38: Assessment of Gastrointestinal System17 Questions
Exam 39: Nutritional Problems24 Questions
Exam 40: Obesity20 Questions
Exam 41: Upper Gastrointestinal Problems47 Questions
Exam 42: Lower Gastrointestinal Problems55 Questions
Exam 43: Liver, pancreas, and Biliary Tract Problems46 Questions
Exam 44: Assessment of Urinary System23 Questions
Exam 45: Renal and Urologic Problems45 Questions
Exam 46: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease38 Questions
Exam 47: Assessment of Endocrine System22 Questions
Exam 48: Diabetes Mellitus49 Questions
Exam 49: Endocrine Problems46 Questions
Exam 50: Assessment of Reproductive System19 Questions
Exam 51: Breast Disorders28 Questions
Exam 52: Sexually Transmitted Infections19 Questions
Exam 53: Female Reproductive and Genital Problems49 Questions
Exam 54: Male Reproductive and Genital Problems35 Questions
Exam 55: Assessment of Nervous System21 Questions
Exam 56: Acute Intracranial Problems40 Questions
Exam 57: Stroke30 Questions
Exam 58: Chronic Neurologic Problems36 Questions
Exam 59: Dementia and Delirium21 Questions
Exam 60: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerve Problems33 Questions
Exam 61: Assessment of Musculoskeletal System15 Questions
Exam 62: Musculoskeletal Trauma and Orthopedic Surgery47 Questions
Exam 63: Musculoskeletal Problems25 Questions
Exam 64: Arthritis and Connective Tissue Diseases47 Questions
Exam 65: Critical Care40 Questions
Exam 66: Shock, sepsis, and Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome29 Questions
Exam 67: Acute Respiratory Failure and Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome27 Questions
Exam 68: Emergency and Disaster Nursing26 Questions
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An 80-kg patient with burns over 30% of total body surface area (TBSA)is admitted to the burn unit. Using the Parkland formula of 4 mL/kg/%TBSA,what is the IV infusion rate (mL/hour)for lactated Ringer's solution that the nurse will give during the first 8 hours?
(Short Answer)
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A patient with severe burns has crystalloid fluid replacement ordered using the Parkland formula. The initial volume of fluid to be administered in the first 24 hours is 30,000 mL. The initial rate of administration is 1875 mL/hr. After the first 8 hours,what rate should the nurse infuse the IV fluids?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which patient is most appropriate for the burn unit charge nurse to assign to a registered nurse (RN)who has floated from the hospital medical unit?
(Multiple Choice)
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The charge nurse observes the following actions being taken by a new nurse on the burn unit. Which action by the new nurse would require immediate intervention by the charge nurse?
(Multiple Choice)
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A young adult patient who is in the rehabilitation phase after having deep partial-thickness face and neck burns has a nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image. Which statement by the patient best indicates that the problem is resolving?
(Multiple Choice)
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Eight hours after a thermal burn covering 50% of a patient's total body surface area (TBSA),the nurse assesses the patient. The patient weighs 92 kg (202.4 lb). Which information would be a priority to communicate to the health care provider?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient arrives in the emergency department with facial and chest burns caused by a house fire. Which action should the nurse take first?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which prescribed drug is best for the nurse to give before scheduled wound debridement on a patient with partial-thickness burns?
(Multiple Choice)
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A young adult patient who is in the rehabilitation phase 6 months after a severe face and neck burn tells the nurse,"I'm sorry that I'm still alive. My life will never be normal again." Which response by the nurse is best?
(Multiple Choice)
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When assessing a patient who spilled hot oil on the right leg and foot,the nurse notes dry,pale,and hard skin. The patient states that the burn is not painful. What term would the nurse use to document the burn depth?
(Multiple Choice)
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Esomeprazole (Nexium)is prescribed for a patient who incurred extensive burn injuries 5 days ago. Which nursing assessment would best evaluate the effectiveness of the drug?
(Multiple Choice)
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